Prove that image of a continuously differential path is a null set












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I got by the following exercise: prove that the image of a continuously differential path $gamma:[0,1] rightarrow R^2$ is a null set.



I know that I need to find some cover of intervals $I_j=[a_j,b_j]$ of the image that satisfy $$sum_{j=1}^infty |I_j| < epsilon$$ for any $epsilon>0$.



However, I am not really sure how to do it.



Any help would be appreciated.










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  • 1




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    The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
    $endgroup$
    – Aurel
    Dec 11 '18 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 11 '18 at 22:33
















1












$begingroup$


I got by the following exercise: prove that the image of a continuously differential path $gamma:[0,1] rightarrow R^2$ is a null set.



I know that I need to find some cover of intervals $I_j=[a_j,b_j]$ of the image that satisfy $$sum_{j=1}^infty |I_j| < epsilon$$ for any $epsilon>0$.



However, I am not really sure how to do it.



Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
    $endgroup$
    – Aurel
    Dec 11 '18 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 11 '18 at 22:33














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I got by the following exercise: prove that the image of a continuously differential path $gamma:[0,1] rightarrow R^2$ is a null set.



I know that I need to find some cover of intervals $I_j=[a_j,b_j]$ of the image that satisfy $$sum_{j=1}^infty |I_j| < epsilon$$ for any $epsilon>0$.



However, I am not really sure how to do it.



Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I got by the following exercise: prove that the image of a continuously differential path $gamma:[0,1] rightarrow R^2$ is a null set.



I know that I need to find some cover of intervals $I_j=[a_j,b_j]$ of the image that satisfy $$sum_{j=1}^infty |I_j| < epsilon$$ for any $epsilon>0$.



However, I am not really sure how to do it.



Any help would be appreciated.







calculus measure-theory multivariable-calculus






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asked Dec 11 '18 at 21:09









Gabi GGabi G

408110




408110








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
    $endgroup$
    – Aurel
    Dec 11 '18 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 11 '18 at 22:33














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
    $endgroup$
    – Aurel
    Dec 11 '18 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 11 '18 at 22:33








1




1




$begingroup$
The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
$endgroup$
– Aurel
Dec 11 '18 at 21:34




$begingroup$
The measure on $mathbb{R}^2$ uses disks or rectangles, not intervals. The idea of the proof is that since paths are one dimensional, we can cover these paths with rectangles of negligible width and hence negligible area.
$endgroup$
– Aurel
Dec 11 '18 at 21:34












$begingroup$
I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
$endgroup$
– Gabi G
Dec 11 '18 at 22:33




$begingroup$
I'm pretty sure I need to use the fact that $gamma$ is continuously differential. So I can bound the differential by some positive constant $M$. But how do I proceed from here?
$endgroup$
– Gabi G
Dec 11 '18 at 22:33










3 Answers
3






active

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2












$begingroup$

Let $gamma: [0,1]toBbb{R}^n$ for $ngeq 2$ be continuously differentiable. Since it is continuously differentiable, it is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $C$, i.e. there exists a $Cgeq 0$ such that for all $t_1,t_2in[0,1]$, $$| x_2-x_1| leq C|t_2-t_1|$$ where $x_i = gamma(t_i)$. This implies that $$gamma([t_1,t_2])subset
B(x_1,C|t_2-t_1|),$$
a closed ball centered at $x_1$ with radius $C|t_2-t_1|$.



Take $k+1$ equally spaced points along $[0,1]$ with $$0=t_0 < t_1 < dots < t_{k-1} < t_k = 1$$ Then, for each $i$, $$gamma([t_i,t_{i+1}])subset B(x_i,C|t_{i+1}-t_i|) = Bleft(x_i,frac{C}{k}right) := B_i$$ so that the curve $gamma([0,1]) subset bigcuplimits_{i}B_i$.



The volume of a ball with radius $r$ in $mathbb{R}^n$ is proportional to $r^n$, so the volume of each $B_i$ is proportional to $frac{1}{k^n}$. Then, the sum of the volumes is an upper bound for the volume of the union, and it is proportional to $$kcdot frac{1}{k^n} = frac{1}{k^{n-1}}$$ Then, as $ktoinfty$, the upper bound for the volume goes to $0$ as long as $ngeq 2$.



Thus, we can create closed ball cover of the curve with arbitrarily small volume, so the curve must be a null set.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! this is a really nice proof
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 12 '18 at 1:24



















1












$begingroup$

Sketch:



Denote by
$$ L = int_0^1 Vert gamma'(t) Vert dt $$
the length of our curve. Let $1>varepsilon>0$ and pick $delta>0$ such that
$$ vert x - y vert < delta Rightarrow Vert gamma(x) - gamma(y) Vert< varepsilon $$
this we can do as continuous functions on compact sets are uniformly continuous. Now set $y_j=gamma(frac{j}{n})$ and denote by $[y_j, y_{j+1}]$ the segment between $y_j$ and $y_{j+1}$, i.e.
$$ [y_j, y_{j+1}] := { tcdot y_{j} + (1-t) y_{j+1} : tin [0,1] }$$
Set
$$ p_n := bigcup_{j=0}^{n-1} [y_j, y_{j+1}].$$
This is a piecewise linear interpolation of our curve. Now we thicken this interpolation up, in such a way that it contains the original curve. For this pick $n>frac{1}{delta}$, then by uniform continuity every point on the image of the curve has distant at most $varepsilon$. Therefore, we have
$$A_n :={ xin mathbb{R}^2 : dist(x, p_n)leq varepsilon }supseteq Im(gamma)$$
Now we are left to show that the measure of $A_n$ is small. Indeed, I leave it to you to show that we have
$$ vert A_n vert leq varepsilon sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1} - y_j Vert + varepsilon^2 cdot pi leq (L+pi ) varepsilon$$
The idea behind the first inequality is that you thicken up in the orthogonal direction, thus you get the length of the segment times the maximal distance ($=varepsilon$) plus you get halves of balls at the beginning and the end of the linear interpolation. For the second inequality we used that $varepsilon<1$ (and thus $varepsilon^2 <varepsilon$) and the inequality
$$ L geq sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1}-y_j Vert. $$






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    0












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    Think of applying fubini theorem to the characteristic function over the path !






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    • $begingroup$
      Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
      $endgroup$
      – Gabi G
      Dec 11 '18 at 22:28











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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    2












    $begingroup$

    Let $gamma: [0,1]toBbb{R}^n$ for $ngeq 2$ be continuously differentiable. Since it is continuously differentiable, it is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $C$, i.e. there exists a $Cgeq 0$ such that for all $t_1,t_2in[0,1]$, $$| x_2-x_1| leq C|t_2-t_1|$$ where $x_i = gamma(t_i)$. This implies that $$gamma([t_1,t_2])subset
    B(x_1,C|t_2-t_1|),$$
    a closed ball centered at $x_1$ with radius $C|t_2-t_1|$.



    Take $k+1$ equally spaced points along $[0,1]$ with $$0=t_0 < t_1 < dots < t_{k-1} < t_k = 1$$ Then, for each $i$, $$gamma([t_i,t_{i+1}])subset B(x_i,C|t_{i+1}-t_i|) = Bleft(x_i,frac{C}{k}right) := B_i$$ so that the curve $gamma([0,1]) subset bigcuplimits_{i}B_i$.



    The volume of a ball with radius $r$ in $mathbb{R}^n$ is proportional to $r^n$, so the volume of each $B_i$ is proportional to $frac{1}{k^n}$. Then, the sum of the volumes is an upper bound for the volume of the union, and it is proportional to $$kcdot frac{1}{k^n} = frac{1}{k^{n-1}}$$ Then, as $ktoinfty$, the upper bound for the volume goes to $0$ as long as $ngeq 2$.



    Thus, we can create closed ball cover of the curve with arbitrarily small volume, so the curve must be a null set.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks! this is a really nice proof
      $endgroup$
      – Gabi G
      Dec 12 '18 at 1:24
















    2












    $begingroup$

    Let $gamma: [0,1]toBbb{R}^n$ for $ngeq 2$ be continuously differentiable. Since it is continuously differentiable, it is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $C$, i.e. there exists a $Cgeq 0$ such that for all $t_1,t_2in[0,1]$, $$| x_2-x_1| leq C|t_2-t_1|$$ where $x_i = gamma(t_i)$. This implies that $$gamma([t_1,t_2])subset
    B(x_1,C|t_2-t_1|),$$
    a closed ball centered at $x_1$ with radius $C|t_2-t_1|$.



    Take $k+1$ equally spaced points along $[0,1]$ with $$0=t_0 < t_1 < dots < t_{k-1} < t_k = 1$$ Then, for each $i$, $$gamma([t_i,t_{i+1}])subset B(x_i,C|t_{i+1}-t_i|) = Bleft(x_i,frac{C}{k}right) := B_i$$ so that the curve $gamma([0,1]) subset bigcuplimits_{i}B_i$.



    The volume of a ball with radius $r$ in $mathbb{R}^n$ is proportional to $r^n$, so the volume of each $B_i$ is proportional to $frac{1}{k^n}$. Then, the sum of the volumes is an upper bound for the volume of the union, and it is proportional to $$kcdot frac{1}{k^n} = frac{1}{k^{n-1}}$$ Then, as $ktoinfty$, the upper bound for the volume goes to $0$ as long as $ngeq 2$.



    Thus, we can create closed ball cover of the curve with arbitrarily small volume, so the curve must be a null set.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks! this is a really nice proof
      $endgroup$
      – Gabi G
      Dec 12 '18 at 1:24














    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    Let $gamma: [0,1]toBbb{R}^n$ for $ngeq 2$ be continuously differentiable. Since it is continuously differentiable, it is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $C$, i.e. there exists a $Cgeq 0$ such that for all $t_1,t_2in[0,1]$, $$| x_2-x_1| leq C|t_2-t_1|$$ where $x_i = gamma(t_i)$. This implies that $$gamma([t_1,t_2])subset
    B(x_1,C|t_2-t_1|),$$
    a closed ball centered at $x_1$ with radius $C|t_2-t_1|$.



    Take $k+1$ equally spaced points along $[0,1]$ with $$0=t_0 < t_1 < dots < t_{k-1} < t_k = 1$$ Then, for each $i$, $$gamma([t_i,t_{i+1}])subset B(x_i,C|t_{i+1}-t_i|) = Bleft(x_i,frac{C}{k}right) := B_i$$ so that the curve $gamma([0,1]) subset bigcuplimits_{i}B_i$.



    The volume of a ball with radius $r$ in $mathbb{R}^n$ is proportional to $r^n$, so the volume of each $B_i$ is proportional to $frac{1}{k^n}$. Then, the sum of the volumes is an upper bound for the volume of the union, and it is proportional to $$kcdot frac{1}{k^n} = frac{1}{k^{n-1}}$$ Then, as $ktoinfty$, the upper bound for the volume goes to $0$ as long as $ngeq 2$.



    Thus, we can create closed ball cover of the curve with arbitrarily small volume, so the curve must be a null set.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Let $gamma: [0,1]toBbb{R}^n$ for $ngeq 2$ be continuously differentiable. Since it is continuously differentiable, it is Lipschitz continuous with Lipschitz constant $C$, i.e. there exists a $Cgeq 0$ such that for all $t_1,t_2in[0,1]$, $$| x_2-x_1| leq C|t_2-t_1|$$ where $x_i = gamma(t_i)$. This implies that $$gamma([t_1,t_2])subset
    B(x_1,C|t_2-t_1|),$$
    a closed ball centered at $x_1$ with radius $C|t_2-t_1|$.



    Take $k+1$ equally spaced points along $[0,1]$ with $$0=t_0 < t_1 < dots < t_{k-1} < t_k = 1$$ Then, for each $i$, $$gamma([t_i,t_{i+1}])subset B(x_i,C|t_{i+1}-t_i|) = Bleft(x_i,frac{C}{k}right) := B_i$$ so that the curve $gamma([0,1]) subset bigcuplimits_{i}B_i$.



    The volume of a ball with radius $r$ in $mathbb{R}^n$ is proportional to $r^n$, so the volume of each $B_i$ is proportional to $frac{1}{k^n}$. Then, the sum of the volumes is an upper bound for the volume of the union, and it is proportional to $$kcdot frac{1}{k^n} = frac{1}{k^{n-1}}$$ Then, as $ktoinfty$, the upper bound for the volume goes to $0$ as long as $ngeq 2$.



    Thus, we can create closed ball cover of the curve with arbitrarily small volume, so the curve must be a null set.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 11 '18 at 22:59









    AlexanderJ93AlexanderJ93

    6,173823




    6,173823












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks! this is a really nice proof
      $endgroup$
      – Gabi G
      Dec 12 '18 at 1:24


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks! this is a really nice proof
      $endgroup$
      – Gabi G
      Dec 12 '18 at 1:24
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks! this is a really nice proof
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 12 '18 at 1:24




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! this is a really nice proof
    $endgroup$
    – Gabi G
    Dec 12 '18 at 1:24











    1












    $begingroup$

    Sketch:



    Denote by
    $$ L = int_0^1 Vert gamma'(t) Vert dt $$
    the length of our curve. Let $1>varepsilon>0$ and pick $delta>0$ such that
    $$ vert x - y vert < delta Rightarrow Vert gamma(x) - gamma(y) Vert< varepsilon $$
    this we can do as continuous functions on compact sets are uniformly continuous. Now set $y_j=gamma(frac{j}{n})$ and denote by $[y_j, y_{j+1}]$ the segment between $y_j$ and $y_{j+1}$, i.e.
    $$ [y_j, y_{j+1}] := { tcdot y_{j} + (1-t) y_{j+1} : tin [0,1] }$$
    Set
    $$ p_n := bigcup_{j=0}^{n-1} [y_j, y_{j+1}].$$
    This is a piecewise linear interpolation of our curve. Now we thicken this interpolation up, in such a way that it contains the original curve. For this pick $n>frac{1}{delta}$, then by uniform continuity every point on the image of the curve has distant at most $varepsilon$. Therefore, we have
    $$A_n :={ xin mathbb{R}^2 : dist(x, p_n)leq varepsilon }supseteq Im(gamma)$$
    Now we are left to show that the measure of $A_n$ is small. Indeed, I leave it to you to show that we have
    $$ vert A_n vert leq varepsilon sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1} - y_j Vert + varepsilon^2 cdot pi leq (L+pi ) varepsilon$$
    The idea behind the first inequality is that you thicken up in the orthogonal direction, thus you get the length of the segment times the maximal distance ($=varepsilon$) plus you get halves of balls at the beginning and the end of the linear interpolation. For the second inequality we used that $varepsilon<1$ (and thus $varepsilon^2 <varepsilon$) and the inequality
    $$ L geq sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1}-y_j Vert. $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Sketch:



      Denote by
      $$ L = int_0^1 Vert gamma'(t) Vert dt $$
      the length of our curve. Let $1>varepsilon>0$ and pick $delta>0$ such that
      $$ vert x - y vert < delta Rightarrow Vert gamma(x) - gamma(y) Vert< varepsilon $$
      this we can do as continuous functions on compact sets are uniformly continuous. Now set $y_j=gamma(frac{j}{n})$ and denote by $[y_j, y_{j+1}]$ the segment between $y_j$ and $y_{j+1}$, i.e.
      $$ [y_j, y_{j+1}] := { tcdot y_{j} + (1-t) y_{j+1} : tin [0,1] }$$
      Set
      $$ p_n := bigcup_{j=0}^{n-1} [y_j, y_{j+1}].$$
      This is a piecewise linear interpolation of our curve. Now we thicken this interpolation up, in such a way that it contains the original curve. For this pick $n>frac{1}{delta}$, then by uniform continuity every point on the image of the curve has distant at most $varepsilon$. Therefore, we have
      $$A_n :={ xin mathbb{R}^2 : dist(x, p_n)leq varepsilon }supseteq Im(gamma)$$
      Now we are left to show that the measure of $A_n$ is small. Indeed, I leave it to you to show that we have
      $$ vert A_n vert leq varepsilon sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1} - y_j Vert + varepsilon^2 cdot pi leq (L+pi ) varepsilon$$
      The idea behind the first inequality is that you thicken up in the orthogonal direction, thus you get the length of the segment times the maximal distance ($=varepsilon$) plus you get halves of balls at the beginning and the end of the linear interpolation. For the second inequality we used that $varepsilon<1$ (and thus $varepsilon^2 <varepsilon$) and the inequality
      $$ L geq sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1}-y_j Vert. $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Sketch:



        Denote by
        $$ L = int_0^1 Vert gamma'(t) Vert dt $$
        the length of our curve. Let $1>varepsilon>0$ and pick $delta>0$ such that
        $$ vert x - y vert < delta Rightarrow Vert gamma(x) - gamma(y) Vert< varepsilon $$
        this we can do as continuous functions on compact sets are uniformly continuous. Now set $y_j=gamma(frac{j}{n})$ and denote by $[y_j, y_{j+1}]$ the segment between $y_j$ and $y_{j+1}$, i.e.
        $$ [y_j, y_{j+1}] := { tcdot y_{j} + (1-t) y_{j+1} : tin [0,1] }$$
        Set
        $$ p_n := bigcup_{j=0}^{n-1} [y_j, y_{j+1}].$$
        This is a piecewise linear interpolation of our curve. Now we thicken this interpolation up, in such a way that it contains the original curve. For this pick $n>frac{1}{delta}$, then by uniform continuity every point on the image of the curve has distant at most $varepsilon$. Therefore, we have
        $$A_n :={ xin mathbb{R}^2 : dist(x, p_n)leq varepsilon }supseteq Im(gamma)$$
        Now we are left to show that the measure of $A_n$ is small. Indeed, I leave it to you to show that we have
        $$ vert A_n vert leq varepsilon sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1} - y_j Vert + varepsilon^2 cdot pi leq (L+pi ) varepsilon$$
        The idea behind the first inequality is that you thicken up in the orthogonal direction, thus you get the length of the segment times the maximal distance ($=varepsilon$) plus you get halves of balls at the beginning and the end of the linear interpolation. For the second inequality we used that $varepsilon<1$ (and thus $varepsilon^2 <varepsilon$) and the inequality
        $$ L geq sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1}-y_j Vert. $$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Sketch:



        Denote by
        $$ L = int_0^1 Vert gamma'(t) Vert dt $$
        the length of our curve. Let $1>varepsilon>0$ and pick $delta>0$ such that
        $$ vert x - y vert < delta Rightarrow Vert gamma(x) - gamma(y) Vert< varepsilon $$
        this we can do as continuous functions on compact sets are uniformly continuous. Now set $y_j=gamma(frac{j}{n})$ and denote by $[y_j, y_{j+1}]$ the segment between $y_j$ and $y_{j+1}$, i.e.
        $$ [y_j, y_{j+1}] := { tcdot y_{j} + (1-t) y_{j+1} : tin [0,1] }$$
        Set
        $$ p_n := bigcup_{j=0}^{n-1} [y_j, y_{j+1}].$$
        This is a piecewise linear interpolation of our curve. Now we thicken this interpolation up, in such a way that it contains the original curve. For this pick $n>frac{1}{delta}$, then by uniform continuity every point on the image of the curve has distant at most $varepsilon$. Therefore, we have
        $$A_n :={ xin mathbb{R}^2 : dist(x, p_n)leq varepsilon }supseteq Im(gamma)$$
        Now we are left to show that the measure of $A_n$ is small. Indeed, I leave it to you to show that we have
        $$ vert A_n vert leq varepsilon sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1} - y_j Vert + varepsilon^2 cdot pi leq (L+pi ) varepsilon$$
        The idea behind the first inequality is that you thicken up in the orthogonal direction, thus you get the length of the segment times the maximal distance ($=varepsilon$) plus you get halves of balls at the beginning and the end of the linear interpolation. For the second inequality we used that $varepsilon<1$ (and thus $varepsilon^2 <varepsilon$) and the inequality
        $$ L geq sum_{j=0}^{n-1} Vert y_{j+1}-y_j Vert. $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 11 '18 at 22:48









        Severin SchravenSeverin Schraven

        6,3381934




        6,3381934























            0












            $begingroup$

            Think of applying fubini theorem to the characteristic function over the path !






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
              $endgroup$
              – Gabi G
              Dec 11 '18 at 22:28
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Think of applying fubini theorem to the characteristic function over the path !






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
              $endgroup$
              – Gabi G
              Dec 11 '18 at 22:28














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Think of applying fubini theorem to the characteristic function over the path !






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Think of applying fubini theorem to the characteristic function over the path !







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 11 '18 at 21:38









            MalikMalik

            1068




            1068












            • $begingroup$
              Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
              $endgroup$
              – Gabi G
              Dec 11 '18 at 22:28


















            • $begingroup$
              Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
              $endgroup$
              – Gabi G
              Dec 11 '18 at 22:28
















            $begingroup$
            Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
            $endgroup$
            – Gabi G
            Dec 11 '18 at 22:28




            $begingroup$
            Well, I haven't studied this theorem yet. I'm looking for another direction
            $endgroup$
            – Gabi G
            Dec 11 '18 at 22:28


















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