Induced homomorphism $p_*: H_1(D_0 - z_0)to H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ by $a(z-z_0)^m$
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Let $D_0 subseteq mathbb{R}^2$ be a closed disc with center at $z_0$ and consider the function $p: D_0 to mathbb{C}$ defined by $p(z):=a(z-z_0)^m$ for $z in D_0$ with $a neq 0$. How can I show that the induced homomorphism $p_*: H_1(D_0 - z_0) to H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ is multiplication by $m$?. I know that $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ and $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ are infinite cyclic groups and that the homorphism induced by $z^m$ in $H_1(S^1) to H_1(S^1) $ is multiplication by $m$. I think that I should work with the isomorphism between $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ and $H_1(S^1)$ and the isomorphism of $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ with $H_1(partial D_0)$.
Thanks for any help.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
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Let $D_0 subseteq mathbb{R}^2$ be a closed disc with center at $z_0$ and consider the function $p: D_0 to mathbb{C}$ defined by $p(z):=a(z-z_0)^m$ for $z in D_0$ with $a neq 0$. How can I show that the induced homomorphism $p_*: H_1(D_0 - z_0) to H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ is multiplication by $m$?. I know that $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ and $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ are infinite cyclic groups and that the homorphism induced by $z^m$ in $H_1(S^1) to H_1(S^1) $ is multiplication by $m$. I think that I should work with the isomorphism between $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ and $H_1(S^1)$ and the isomorphism of $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ with $H_1(partial D_0)$.
Thanks for any help.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16
add a comment |
up vote
0
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favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $D_0 subseteq mathbb{R}^2$ be a closed disc with center at $z_0$ and consider the function $p: D_0 to mathbb{C}$ defined by $p(z):=a(z-z_0)^m$ for $z in D_0$ with $a neq 0$. How can I show that the induced homomorphism $p_*: H_1(D_0 - z_0) to H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ is multiplication by $m$?. I know that $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ and $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ are infinite cyclic groups and that the homorphism induced by $z^m$ in $H_1(S^1) to H_1(S^1) $ is multiplication by $m$. I think that I should work with the isomorphism between $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ and $H_1(S^1)$ and the isomorphism of $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ with $H_1(partial D_0)$.
Thanks for any help.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
Let $D_0 subseteq mathbb{R}^2$ be a closed disc with center at $z_0$ and consider the function $p: D_0 to mathbb{C}$ defined by $p(z):=a(z-z_0)^m$ for $z in D_0$ with $a neq 0$. How can I show that the induced homomorphism $p_*: H_1(D_0 - z_0) to H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ is multiplication by $m$?. I know that $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ and $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ are infinite cyclic groups and that the homorphism induced by $z^m$ in $H_1(S^1) to H_1(S^1) $ is multiplication by $m$. I think that I should work with the isomorphism between $H_1(mathbb{C}-0)$ and $H_1(S^1)$ and the isomorphism of $H_1(D_0 - z_0)$ with $H_1(partial D_0)$.
Thanks for any help.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
edited Nov 18 at 19:41
asked Nov 18 at 15:39
user589291
I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16
add a comment |
I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16
I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16
add a comment |
1 Answer
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oldest
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up vote
-1
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accepted
Certainly we have $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0) approx mathbb{Z}$ and $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0) approx mathbb{Z}$. However, to see what $p_*$ looks like we must specify generators $a$ of $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $b$ of $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. There are two possible choices for both homology groups. This is equivalent to specifying isomorphisms $f : H_1(S^1) to H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $g : H_1(S^1) to H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. This is done in the following obvious way:
(1) There exists a strong deformation retraction $r : mathbb{C} setminus 0 to S^1, r(z) = z/lVert z rVert$. Hence the inclusion $i : S^1 to mathbb{C} setminus 0$ is a homotopy equivalence and induces the isomorphism $g = i_*$. Its inverse is $g^{-1} = r_*$.
(2) $partial D_0$ is a strong deformation retract of $D_0 setminus z_0$. But there is a canonical homeomorphism $h : S^1 to partial D_0, h(z) = z_0 + dz$, where $d$ is the radius of $D_0$. If $j : partial D_0 to D_0$ denotes inclusion, we take $f = (j circ h)_*$.
You know that the map $mu : S^1 to S^1, mu(z) = z^m,$ induces $mu_*$ = multiplication by $m$.
Now we can check that $g^{-1} circ p_* circ f$ is multiplication by $m$. We have
$$g^{-1} circ p_* circ f = r_* circ p_* circ (j circ h)_* = (r circ p circ j circ h)_*$$
and
$$(r circ p circ j circ h)(z) = r(p(z_0+dz)) = r(adz^m) = frac{a}{lvert a rvert} z^m .$$
Let $varphi = r circ p circ j circ h$ and write $frac{a}{lvert a rvert} = e^{itau}$ with $tau in [0,2pi)$. A homotopy $H : S^1 times [0,1] to S^1$ is defined by
$$H(z,t) = e^{ittau}z^m .$$
Then $H(z,0) = mu(z), H(z,1) = varphi(z)$. Hence $mu$ and $varphi$ are homotopic and we conclude $varphi_* = mu_*$.
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
-1
down vote
accepted
Certainly we have $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0) approx mathbb{Z}$ and $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0) approx mathbb{Z}$. However, to see what $p_*$ looks like we must specify generators $a$ of $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $b$ of $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. There are two possible choices for both homology groups. This is equivalent to specifying isomorphisms $f : H_1(S^1) to H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $g : H_1(S^1) to H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. This is done in the following obvious way:
(1) There exists a strong deformation retraction $r : mathbb{C} setminus 0 to S^1, r(z) = z/lVert z rVert$. Hence the inclusion $i : S^1 to mathbb{C} setminus 0$ is a homotopy equivalence and induces the isomorphism $g = i_*$. Its inverse is $g^{-1} = r_*$.
(2) $partial D_0$ is a strong deformation retract of $D_0 setminus z_0$. But there is a canonical homeomorphism $h : S^1 to partial D_0, h(z) = z_0 + dz$, where $d$ is the radius of $D_0$. If $j : partial D_0 to D_0$ denotes inclusion, we take $f = (j circ h)_*$.
You know that the map $mu : S^1 to S^1, mu(z) = z^m,$ induces $mu_*$ = multiplication by $m$.
Now we can check that $g^{-1} circ p_* circ f$ is multiplication by $m$. We have
$$g^{-1} circ p_* circ f = r_* circ p_* circ (j circ h)_* = (r circ p circ j circ h)_*$$
and
$$(r circ p circ j circ h)(z) = r(p(z_0+dz)) = r(adz^m) = frac{a}{lvert a rvert} z^m .$$
Let $varphi = r circ p circ j circ h$ and write $frac{a}{lvert a rvert} = e^{itau}$ with $tau in [0,2pi)$. A homotopy $H : S^1 times [0,1] to S^1$ is defined by
$$H(z,t) = e^{ittau}z^m .$$
Then $H(z,0) = mu(z), H(z,1) = varphi(z)$. Hence $mu$ and $varphi$ are homotopic and we conclude $varphi_* = mu_*$.
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
accepted
Certainly we have $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0) approx mathbb{Z}$ and $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0) approx mathbb{Z}$. However, to see what $p_*$ looks like we must specify generators $a$ of $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $b$ of $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. There are two possible choices for both homology groups. This is equivalent to specifying isomorphisms $f : H_1(S^1) to H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $g : H_1(S^1) to H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. This is done in the following obvious way:
(1) There exists a strong deformation retraction $r : mathbb{C} setminus 0 to S^1, r(z) = z/lVert z rVert$. Hence the inclusion $i : S^1 to mathbb{C} setminus 0$ is a homotopy equivalence and induces the isomorphism $g = i_*$. Its inverse is $g^{-1} = r_*$.
(2) $partial D_0$ is a strong deformation retract of $D_0 setminus z_0$. But there is a canonical homeomorphism $h : S^1 to partial D_0, h(z) = z_0 + dz$, where $d$ is the radius of $D_0$. If $j : partial D_0 to D_0$ denotes inclusion, we take $f = (j circ h)_*$.
You know that the map $mu : S^1 to S^1, mu(z) = z^m,$ induces $mu_*$ = multiplication by $m$.
Now we can check that $g^{-1} circ p_* circ f$ is multiplication by $m$. We have
$$g^{-1} circ p_* circ f = r_* circ p_* circ (j circ h)_* = (r circ p circ j circ h)_*$$
and
$$(r circ p circ j circ h)(z) = r(p(z_0+dz)) = r(adz^m) = frac{a}{lvert a rvert} z^m .$$
Let $varphi = r circ p circ j circ h$ and write $frac{a}{lvert a rvert} = e^{itau}$ with $tau in [0,2pi)$. A homotopy $H : S^1 times [0,1] to S^1$ is defined by
$$H(z,t) = e^{ittau}z^m .$$
Then $H(z,0) = mu(z), H(z,1) = varphi(z)$. Hence $mu$ and $varphi$ are homotopic and we conclude $varphi_* = mu_*$.
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
accepted
up vote
-1
down vote
accepted
Certainly we have $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0) approx mathbb{Z}$ and $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0) approx mathbb{Z}$. However, to see what $p_*$ looks like we must specify generators $a$ of $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $b$ of $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. There are two possible choices for both homology groups. This is equivalent to specifying isomorphisms $f : H_1(S^1) to H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $g : H_1(S^1) to H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. This is done in the following obvious way:
(1) There exists a strong deformation retraction $r : mathbb{C} setminus 0 to S^1, r(z) = z/lVert z rVert$. Hence the inclusion $i : S^1 to mathbb{C} setminus 0$ is a homotopy equivalence and induces the isomorphism $g = i_*$. Its inverse is $g^{-1} = r_*$.
(2) $partial D_0$ is a strong deformation retract of $D_0 setminus z_0$. But there is a canonical homeomorphism $h : S^1 to partial D_0, h(z) = z_0 + dz$, where $d$ is the radius of $D_0$. If $j : partial D_0 to D_0$ denotes inclusion, we take $f = (j circ h)_*$.
You know that the map $mu : S^1 to S^1, mu(z) = z^m,$ induces $mu_*$ = multiplication by $m$.
Now we can check that $g^{-1} circ p_* circ f$ is multiplication by $m$. We have
$$g^{-1} circ p_* circ f = r_* circ p_* circ (j circ h)_* = (r circ p circ j circ h)_*$$
and
$$(r circ p circ j circ h)(z) = r(p(z_0+dz)) = r(adz^m) = frac{a}{lvert a rvert} z^m .$$
Let $varphi = r circ p circ j circ h$ and write $frac{a}{lvert a rvert} = e^{itau}$ with $tau in [0,2pi)$. A homotopy $H : S^1 times [0,1] to S^1$ is defined by
$$H(z,t) = e^{ittau}z^m .$$
Then $H(z,0) = mu(z), H(z,1) = varphi(z)$. Hence $mu$ and $varphi$ are homotopic and we conclude $varphi_* = mu_*$.
Certainly we have $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0) approx mathbb{Z}$ and $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0) approx mathbb{Z}$. However, to see what $p_*$ looks like we must specify generators $a$ of $H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $b$ of $H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. There are two possible choices for both homology groups. This is equivalent to specifying isomorphisms $f : H_1(S^1) to H_1(D_0 setminus z_0)$ and $g : H_1(S^1) to H_1(mathbb{C} setminus 0)$. This is done in the following obvious way:
(1) There exists a strong deformation retraction $r : mathbb{C} setminus 0 to S^1, r(z) = z/lVert z rVert$. Hence the inclusion $i : S^1 to mathbb{C} setminus 0$ is a homotopy equivalence and induces the isomorphism $g = i_*$. Its inverse is $g^{-1} = r_*$.
(2) $partial D_0$ is a strong deformation retract of $D_0 setminus z_0$. But there is a canonical homeomorphism $h : S^1 to partial D_0, h(z) = z_0 + dz$, where $d$ is the radius of $D_0$. If $j : partial D_0 to D_0$ denotes inclusion, we take $f = (j circ h)_*$.
You know that the map $mu : S^1 to S^1, mu(z) = z^m,$ induces $mu_*$ = multiplication by $m$.
Now we can check that $g^{-1} circ p_* circ f$ is multiplication by $m$. We have
$$g^{-1} circ p_* circ f = r_* circ p_* circ (j circ h)_* = (r circ p circ j circ h)_*$$
and
$$(r circ p circ j circ h)(z) = r(p(z_0+dz)) = r(adz^m) = frac{a}{lvert a rvert} z^m .$$
Let $varphi = r circ p circ j circ h$ and write $frac{a}{lvert a rvert} = e^{itau}$ with $tau in [0,2pi)$. A homotopy $H : S^1 times [0,1] to S^1$ is defined by
$$H(z,t) = e^{ittau}z^m .$$
Then $H(z,0) = mu(z), H(z,1) = varphi(z)$. Hence $mu$ and $varphi$ are homotopic and we conclude $varphi_* = mu_*$.
answered Nov 18 at 17:39
Paul Frost
8,1891528
8,1891528
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
add a comment |
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
Downvoting is absolutely okay if somebody is not satisfied with an answer. But it would be interesting to learn what are the defects leading to this vote.
– Paul Frost
Nov 22 at 21:32
add a comment |
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I guess you mean $D_0$ when you write $D_1$?
– Paul Frost
Nov 18 at 16:42
Yes, it was a typo. Thank you.
– user589291
Nov 18 at 19:16