Sum of two random variables ( negative binomial distribution )












1












$begingroup$


Let $X,Y$ be two independent negative binomial distributed random variables.



$X$ ~ $NB(r,p)$ and $Y$ ~ $NB(s,p)$



Show that:



$ X+Y $ ~ $ NB(r+s,p) $.



Remark: So where I'm stucked?
I failed to show that $ sum_{j=0}^{k} binom{j+r-1}{j} cdot binom{k-j+s-1}{k-j} = binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$. If I have this identity I can solve this exercise. First I thought that this is the vandermonde identity, but it isn't. So how can I show this identity? I know that I can solve this exercise by using the fact that a negative binomial distributed RV is a sum of geometric distributed RV, but i want to show it with my attempt.



Thank you for your help.










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $X,Y$ be two independent negative binomial distributed random variables.



    $X$ ~ $NB(r,p)$ and $Y$ ~ $NB(s,p)$



    Show that:



    $ X+Y $ ~ $ NB(r+s,p) $.



    Remark: So where I'm stucked?
    I failed to show that $ sum_{j=0}^{k} binom{j+r-1}{j} cdot binom{k-j+s-1}{k-j} = binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$. If I have this identity I can solve this exercise. First I thought that this is the vandermonde identity, but it isn't. So how can I show this identity? I know that I can solve this exercise by using the fact that a negative binomial distributed RV is a sum of geometric distributed RV, but i want to show it with my attempt.



    Thank you for your help.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let $X,Y$ be two independent negative binomial distributed random variables.



      $X$ ~ $NB(r,p)$ and $Y$ ~ $NB(s,p)$



      Show that:



      $ X+Y $ ~ $ NB(r+s,p) $.



      Remark: So where I'm stucked?
      I failed to show that $ sum_{j=0}^{k} binom{j+r-1}{j} cdot binom{k-j+s-1}{k-j} = binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$. If I have this identity I can solve this exercise. First I thought that this is the vandermonde identity, but it isn't. So how can I show this identity? I know that I can solve this exercise by using the fact that a negative binomial distributed RV is a sum of geometric distributed RV, but i want to show it with my attempt.



      Thank you for your help.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X,Y$ be two independent negative binomial distributed random variables.



      $X$ ~ $NB(r,p)$ and $Y$ ~ $NB(s,p)$



      Show that:



      $ X+Y $ ~ $ NB(r+s,p) $.



      Remark: So where I'm stucked?
      I failed to show that $ sum_{j=0}^{k} binom{j+r-1}{j} cdot binom{k-j+s-1}{k-j} = binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$. If I have this identity I can solve this exercise. First I thought that this is the vandermonde identity, but it isn't. So how can I show this identity? I know that I can solve this exercise by using the fact that a negative binomial distributed RV is a sum of geometric distributed RV, but i want to show it with my attempt.



      Thank you for your help.







      probability-theory probability-distributions random-variables negative-binomial






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      asked Dec 2 '17 at 12:06









      RukiaKuchikiRukiaKuchiki

      337211




      337211






















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          $begingroup$

          In general we have:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{i}{r}binom{j}{s}=binom{k+1}{r+s+1}tag1$$



          This under the convention that $binom{n}{k}=0$ if $knotin{0,1,dots,n}$.





          For a combinatorial proof think of a row of $k+1$ balls.



          Selecting $r+s+1$ of them can be done on $binom{k+1}{r+s+1}$ ways (RHS).



          Doing so we first pick out a ball that cuts the row in a left row of length $igeq r$ balls and a right row of length $jgeq s$ balls. So this under the condition that $i+j=k$. Then from the left row we select $r$ balls and from the right row we select $s$ balls. This process reveals the LHS.





          Your summation can be rewritten by:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{j+r-1}{r-1}binom{i+s-1}{s-1}=sum_{i+j=k+r+s-2}binom{j}{r-1}binom{i}{s-1}$$



          Then applying $(1)$ gives:$$=binom{k+r+s-1}{r+s-1}=binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













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            1 Answer
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            1












            $begingroup$

            In general we have:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{i}{r}binom{j}{s}=binom{k+1}{r+s+1}tag1$$



            This under the convention that $binom{n}{k}=0$ if $knotin{0,1,dots,n}$.





            For a combinatorial proof think of a row of $k+1$ balls.



            Selecting $r+s+1$ of them can be done on $binom{k+1}{r+s+1}$ ways (RHS).



            Doing so we first pick out a ball that cuts the row in a left row of length $igeq r$ balls and a right row of length $jgeq s$ balls. So this under the condition that $i+j=k$. Then from the left row we select $r$ balls and from the right row we select $s$ balls. This process reveals the LHS.





            Your summation can be rewritten by:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{j+r-1}{r-1}binom{i+s-1}{s-1}=sum_{i+j=k+r+s-2}binom{j}{r-1}binom{i}{s-1}$$



            Then applying $(1)$ gives:$$=binom{k+r+s-1}{r+s-1}=binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              In general we have:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{i}{r}binom{j}{s}=binom{k+1}{r+s+1}tag1$$



              This under the convention that $binom{n}{k}=0$ if $knotin{0,1,dots,n}$.





              For a combinatorial proof think of a row of $k+1$ balls.



              Selecting $r+s+1$ of them can be done on $binom{k+1}{r+s+1}$ ways (RHS).



              Doing so we first pick out a ball that cuts the row in a left row of length $igeq r$ balls and a right row of length $jgeq s$ balls. So this under the condition that $i+j=k$. Then from the left row we select $r$ balls and from the right row we select $s$ balls. This process reveals the LHS.





              Your summation can be rewritten by:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{j+r-1}{r-1}binom{i+s-1}{s-1}=sum_{i+j=k+r+s-2}binom{j}{r-1}binom{i}{s-1}$$



              Then applying $(1)$ gives:$$=binom{k+r+s-1}{r+s-1}=binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                In general we have:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{i}{r}binom{j}{s}=binom{k+1}{r+s+1}tag1$$



                This under the convention that $binom{n}{k}=0$ if $knotin{0,1,dots,n}$.





                For a combinatorial proof think of a row of $k+1$ balls.



                Selecting $r+s+1$ of them can be done on $binom{k+1}{r+s+1}$ ways (RHS).



                Doing so we first pick out a ball that cuts the row in a left row of length $igeq r$ balls and a right row of length $jgeq s$ balls. So this under the condition that $i+j=k$. Then from the left row we select $r$ balls and from the right row we select $s$ balls. This process reveals the LHS.





                Your summation can be rewritten by:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{j+r-1}{r-1}binom{i+s-1}{s-1}=sum_{i+j=k+r+s-2}binom{j}{r-1}binom{i}{s-1}$$



                Then applying $(1)$ gives:$$=binom{k+r+s-1}{r+s-1}=binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                In general we have:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{i}{r}binom{j}{s}=binom{k+1}{r+s+1}tag1$$



                This under the convention that $binom{n}{k}=0$ if $knotin{0,1,dots,n}$.





                For a combinatorial proof think of a row of $k+1$ balls.



                Selecting $r+s+1$ of them can be done on $binom{k+1}{r+s+1}$ ways (RHS).



                Doing so we first pick out a ball that cuts the row in a left row of length $igeq r$ balls and a right row of length $jgeq s$ balls. So this under the condition that $i+j=k$. Then from the left row we select $r$ balls and from the right row we select $s$ balls. This process reveals the LHS.





                Your summation can be rewritten by:$$sum_{i+j=k}binom{j+r-1}{r-1}binom{i+s-1}{s-1}=sum_{i+j=k+r+s-2}binom{j}{r-1}binom{i}{s-1}$$



                Then applying $(1)$ gives:$$=binom{k+r+s-1}{r+s-1}=binom{k+r+s-1}{k}$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Dec 9 '18 at 7:50

























                answered Dec 2 '17 at 12:43









                drhabdrhab

                101k545136




                101k545136






























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