How can this equality be proved?












0












$begingroup$


I confront with a statement:



For any given any complex number $zin B(0,r)$, where $r$ is radius of real number, then we have equations:



$frac{1}{2pi}int_{0}^{2pi}operatorname{Log}|re^{itheta}-z|,dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



I try to compute it by changing the integral into another form:



$frac{1}{4pi}int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(r^2+rho^2-2rrho costheta),dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



where $rho <r$, but it's still too complicated to compute. Actually, if I can show that $int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(1+rho^2-2rho costheta),dtheta=0$, where $rho <1$, then the proof is completed. Hope someone could help, Thanks!










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  • $begingroup$
    Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
    $endgroup$
    – Ant
    Dec 18 '18 at 12:14
















0












$begingroup$


I confront with a statement:



For any given any complex number $zin B(0,r)$, where $r$ is radius of real number, then we have equations:



$frac{1}{2pi}int_{0}^{2pi}operatorname{Log}|re^{itheta}-z|,dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



I try to compute it by changing the integral into another form:



$frac{1}{4pi}int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(r^2+rho^2-2rrho costheta),dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



where $rho <r$, but it's still too complicated to compute. Actually, if I can show that $int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(1+rho^2-2rho costheta),dtheta=0$, where $rho <1$, then the proof is completed. Hope someone could help, Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
    $endgroup$
    – Ant
    Dec 18 '18 at 12:14














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I confront with a statement:



For any given any complex number $zin B(0,r)$, where $r$ is radius of real number, then we have equations:



$frac{1}{2pi}int_{0}^{2pi}operatorname{Log}|re^{itheta}-z|,dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



I try to compute it by changing the integral into another form:



$frac{1}{4pi}int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(r^2+rho^2-2rrho costheta),dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



where $rho <r$, but it's still too complicated to compute. Actually, if I can show that $int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(1+rho^2-2rho costheta),dtheta=0$, where $rho <1$, then the proof is completed. Hope someone could help, Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I confront with a statement:



For any given any complex number $zin B(0,r)$, where $r$ is radius of real number, then we have equations:



$frac{1}{2pi}int_{0}^{2pi}operatorname{Log}|re^{itheta}-z|,dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



I try to compute it by changing the integral into another form:



$frac{1}{4pi}int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(r^2+rho^2-2rrho costheta),dtheta=operatorname{Log}r$



where $rho <r$, but it's still too complicated to compute. Actually, if I can show that $int_{0}^{2pi} operatorname{Log}(1+rho^2-2rho costheta),dtheta=0$, where $rho <1$, then the proof is completed. Hope someone could help, Thanks!







complex-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 18 '18 at 12:11









Bernard

123k741117




123k741117










asked Dec 18 '18 at 12:02









Yuyi ZhangYuyi Zhang

15117




15117












  • $begingroup$
    Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
    $endgroup$
    – Ant
    Dec 18 '18 at 12:14


















  • $begingroup$
    Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
    $endgroup$
    – Ant
    Dec 18 '18 at 12:14
















$begingroup$
Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
$endgroup$
– Ant
Dec 18 '18 at 12:14




$begingroup$
Uhm I would rather try to use the residue theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem
$endgroup$
– Ant
Dec 18 '18 at 12:14










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