prove that $f_n(x) = frac{n^2x}{1 + n^2x^2log n}$ converge but not uniform












2












$begingroup$



I have to prove that the sequence of functions
$$
f_n(x) = frac{n^2x}{1 + n^2x^2log n},
$$
converges.




So I think that I can just show that $lim_{n to infty} (f_n) = 0$ pointwise. But to show that the sequence does not converge uniformly, I need to show that $f_n$ has a point of maximum $x = frac{1}{n sqrt{log n}}$ and at this point, the limit is equal to infinity. Is that correct?



And finally I need to show that $forall alpha > 0$ in the interval $mathbb{R} setminus (-alpha,+alpha)$, the sequence $f_n$ converges uniformly, but I don't have ideas how to do it.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Fachini
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:23
















2












$begingroup$



I have to prove that the sequence of functions
$$
f_n(x) = frac{n^2x}{1 + n^2x^2log n},
$$
converges.




So I think that I can just show that $lim_{n to infty} (f_n) = 0$ pointwise. But to show that the sequence does not converge uniformly, I need to show that $f_n$ has a point of maximum $x = frac{1}{n sqrt{log n}}$ and at this point, the limit is equal to infinity. Is that correct?



And finally I need to show that $forall alpha > 0$ in the interval $mathbb{R} setminus (-alpha,+alpha)$, the sequence $f_n$ converges uniformly, but I don't have ideas how to do it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Fachini
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:23














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$



I have to prove that the sequence of functions
$$
f_n(x) = frac{n^2x}{1 + n^2x^2log n},
$$
converges.




So I think that I can just show that $lim_{n to infty} (f_n) = 0$ pointwise. But to show that the sequence does not converge uniformly, I need to show that $f_n$ has a point of maximum $x = frac{1}{n sqrt{log n}}$ and at this point, the limit is equal to infinity. Is that correct?



And finally I need to show that $forall alpha > 0$ in the interval $mathbb{R} setminus (-alpha,+alpha)$, the sequence $f_n$ converges uniformly, but I don't have ideas how to do it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





I have to prove that the sequence of functions
$$
f_n(x) = frac{n^2x}{1 + n^2x^2log n},
$$
converges.




So I think that I can just show that $lim_{n to infty} (f_n) = 0$ pointwise. But to show that the sequence does not converge uniformly, I need to show that $f_n$ has a point of maximum $x = frac{1}{n sqrt{log n}}$ and at this point, the limit is equal to infinity. Is that correct?



And finally I need to show that $forall alpha > 0$ in the interval $mathbb{R} setminus (-alpha,+alpha)$, the sequence $f_n$ converges uniformly, but I don't have ideas how to do it.







real-analysis sequences-and-series analysis






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 15 '18 at 21:33







user587192

















asked Dec 15 '18 at 21:24









Matheus FachiniMatheus Fachini

859




859












  • $begingroup$
    You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Fachini
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:23


















  • $begingroup$
    You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Fachini
    Dec 15 '18 at 21:45






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Dec 15 '18 at 22:23
















$begingroup$
You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 15 '18 at 21:39




$begingroup$
You do not need to prove that the limit is infinity, you just need to prove that the sequence does not go to zero.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 15 '18 at 21:39












$begingroup$
Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
$endgroup$
– Matheus Fachini
Dec 15 '18 at 21:45




$begingroup$
Okay, I got it, for example $f_n(x) = x^n(1-x^n)$. When $x = sqrt[n]{1/2}$ we have $f_n = 1/4$, thus is not uniformly convergent, correct?
$endgroup$
– Matheus Fachini
Dec 15 '18 at 21:45




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 15 '18 at 22:23




$begingroup$
Yes, because the max-norm is always at least $1/4$ so cannot go to zero.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 15 '18 at 22:23










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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2












$begingroup$

$1). $ If $x=0$ the sequence clearly converges to $0$. If not, then $|f_n(x)|le frac{1}{xlog n}to 0$ as $nto infty$ so $(f_n)$ is pointwise convergent.



$2). $ The trouble will be near zero, so take $x_n=1/n$. Then $x_nto 0$ whereas $f_n(x_n)to infty$, and so $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergent.



$3). $ $f_n$ is odd for each $nge 1$ so it suffices to check $[alpha,infty).$ In this case,$ |f_n(x)|le frac{1}{alphalog n}$ so $(f_n)$ is uniformly bounded, and so converges uniformly.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 16 '18 at 2:39










  • $begingroup$
    I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 16 '18 at 14:39











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2












$begingroup$

$1). $ If $x=0$ the sequence clearly converges to $0$. If not, then $|f_n(x)|le frac{1}{xlog n}to 0$ as $nto infty$ so $(f_n)$ is pointwise convergent.



$2). $ The trouble will be near zero, so take $x_n=1/n$. Then $x_nto 0$ whereas $f_n(x_n)to infty$, and so $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergent.



$3). $ $f_n$ is odd for each $nge 1$ so it suffices to check $[alpha,infty).$ In this case,$ |f_n(x)|le frac{1}{alphalog n}$ so $(f_n)$ is uniformly bounded, and so converges uniformly.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 16 '18 at 2:39










  • $begingroup$
    I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 16 '18 at 14:39
















2












$begingroup$

$1). $ If $x=0$ the sequence clearly converges to $0$. If not, then $|f_n(x)|le frac{1}{xlog n}to 0$ as $nto infty$ so $(f_n)$ is pointwise convergent.



$2). $ The trouble will be near zero, so take $x_n=1/n$. Then $x_nto 0$ whereas $f_n(x_n)to infty$, and so $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergent.



$3). $ $f_n$ is odd for each $nge 1$ so it suffices to check $[alpha,infty).$ In this case,$ |f_n(x)|le frac{1}{alphalog n}$ so $(f_n)$ is uniformly bounded, and so converges uniformly.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 16 '18 at 2:39










  • $begingroup$
    I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 16 '18 at 14:39














2












2








2





$begingroup$

$1). $ If $x=0$ the sequence clearly converges to $0$. If not, then $|f_n(x)|le frac{1}{xlog n}to 0$ as $nto infty$ so $(f_n)$ is pointwise convergent.



$2). $ The trouble will be near zero, so take $x_n=1/n$. Then $x_nto 0$ whereas $f_n(x_n)to infty$, and so $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergent.



$3). $ $f_n$ is odd for each $nge 1$ so it suffices to check $[alpha,infty).$ In this case,$ |f_n(x)|le frac{1}{alphalog n}$ so $(f_n)$ is uniformly bounded, and so converges uniformly.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



$1). $ If $x=0$ the sequence clearly converges to $0$. If not, then $|f_n(x)|le frac{1}{xlog n}to 0$ as $nto infty$ so $(f_n)$ is pointwise convergent.



$2). $ The trouble will be near zero, so take $x_n=1/n$. Then $x_nto 0$ whereas $f_n(x_n)to infty$, and so $(f_n)$ is not uniformly convergent.



$3). $ $f_n$ is odd for each $nge 1$ so it suffices to check $[alpha,infty).$ In this case,$ |f_n(x)|le frac{1}{alphalog n}$ so $(f_n)$ is uniformly bounded, and so converges uniformly.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 16 '18 at 4:51

























answered Dec 15 '18 at 22:24









MatematletaMatematleta

11.5k2920




11.5k2920












  • $begingroup$
    Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 16 '18 at 2:39










  • $begingroup$
    I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 16 '18 at 14:39


















  • $begingroup$
    Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 16 '18 at 2:39










  • $begingroup$
    I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 16 '18 at 14:39
















$begingroup$
Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 16 '18 at 2:39




$begingroup$
Because $f_n(1/n)=n/(1+ln n)$
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 16 '18 at 2:39












$begingroup$
I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 14:39




$begingroup$
I had misread the numerator as $n^2x^2$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 14:39


















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