Lebesgue integral question
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Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
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Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited yesterday
KCd
16.5k3873
16.5k3873
asked yesterday
TNT
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293
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday
add a comment |
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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up vote
1
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The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
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Unnecessarily sophisticated proof: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
answered yesterday
qbert
21.4k32357
21.4k32357
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$
answered 22 hours ago
Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
33.7k42770
33.7k42770
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
yesterday
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
yesterday
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
yesterday