L'Hôpital's rule - How solve this limit question
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How to solve this ?
$$lim_{xto 0} f(x);text{where};f(x)=frac{ arctan(2x)}{ln (x)}$$
The answer is $0$. My question is when we plug in $0$ in $f(x)$, we get the form $frac{0}{infty}$, which is not an indeterminate form, so we might just write $0$ as answer directly OR if we apply L'Hôpital's rule, we would still get an answer as $0$. Which method is correct?
limits
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favorite
How to solve this ?
$$lim_{xto 0} f(x);text{where};f(x)=frac{ arctan(2x)}{ln (x)}$$
The answer is $0$. My question is when we plug in $0$ in $f(x)$, we get the form $frac{0}{infty}$, which is not an indeterminate form, so we might just write $0$ as answer directly OR if we apply L'Hôpital's rule, we would still get an answer as $0$. Which method is correct?
limits
New contributor
We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
How to solve this ?
$$lim_{xto 0} f(x);text{where};f(x)=frac{ arctan(2x)}{ln (x)}$$
The answer is $0$. My question is when we plug in $0$ in $f(x)$, we get the form $frac{0}{infty}$, which is not an indeterminate form, so we might just write $0$ as answer directly OR if we apply L'Hôpital's rule, we would still get an answer as $0$. Which method is correct?
limits
New contributor
How to solve this ?
$$lim_{xto 0} f(x);text{where};f(x)=frac{ arctan(2x)}{ln (x)}$$
The answer is $0$. My question is when we plug in $0$ in $f(x)$, we get the form $frac{0}{infty}$, which is not an indeterminate form, so we might just write $0$ as answer directly OR if we apply L'Hôpital's rule, we would still get an answer as $0$. Which method is correct?
limits
limits
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New contributor
edited yesterday
Chinnapparaj R
4,4101725
4,4101725
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asked yesterday
Amogh Joshi
183
183
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We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday
add a comment |
We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday
We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday
add a comment |
2 Answers
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First of all, the limit cannot be $xto 0$, it must be $xto 0^+$, because of the domain of ln(x).
Second thing is that the L-Hopital rule is not applicable in this case, because it applies only for $frac{0}{0} or frac{infty}{infty}$ form, so the first method is correct.
Hope it is helpful.
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Note that we can only consider $lim_{xto 0^+} f(x)$ and that we have a $frac 0{-infty}$ form which is not indeterminate.
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
First of all, the limit cannot be $xto 0$, it must be $xto 0^+$, because of the domain of ln(x).
Second thing is that the L-Hopital rule is not applicable in this case, because it applies only for $frac{0}{0} or frac{infty}{infty}$ form, so the first method is correct.
Hope it is helpful.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
First of all, the limit cannot be $xto 0$, it must be $xto 0^+$, because of the domain of ln(x).
Second thing is that the L-Hopital rule is not applicable in this case, because it applies only for $frac{0}{0} or frac{infty}{infty}$ form, so the first method is correct.
Hope it is helpful.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
First of all, the limit cannot be $xto 0$, it must be $xto 0^+$, because of the domain of ln(x).
Second thing is that the L-Hopital rule is not applicable in this case, because it applies only for $frac{0}{0} or frac{infty}{infty}$ form, so the first method is correct.
Hope it is helpful.
First of all, the limit cannot be $xto 0$, it must be $xto 0^+$, because of the domain of ln(x).
Second thing is that the L-Hopital rule is not applicable in this case, because it applies only for $frac{0}{0} or frac{infty}{infty}$ form, so the first method is correct.
Hope it is helpful.
answered yesterday
Crazy for maths
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up vote
0
down vote
Note that we can only consider $lim_{xto 0^+} f(x)$ and that we have a $frac 0{-infty}$ form which is not indeterminate.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Note that we can only consider $lim_{xto 0^+} f(x)$ and that we have a $frac 0{-infty}$ form which is not indeterminate.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Note that we can only consider $lim_{xto 0^+} f(x)$ and that we have a $frac 0{-infty}$ form which is not indeterminate.
Note that we can only consider $lim_{xto 0^+} f(x)$ and that we have a $frac 0{-infty}$ form which is not indeterminate.
answered yesterday
gimusi
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84.3k74292
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Amogh Joshi is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Amogh Joshi is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Amogh Joshi is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Amogh Joshi is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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We can't use L'Hôpital's rule for the reasons you mentioned, so that approach isn't correct. You are essentially right with the first explanation. To see this more clearly think of $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$, where $g(x) = arctan(2x)$, and $h(x) = 1/ln(x)$. Do you know how to do these two limits separately?
– Jabbath
yesterday
First one because L-Hopital's rule is only applicable when you get an indeterminate form. You can get different answers if the limits are not indeterminate.
– Sri Krishna Sahoo
yesterday