Clarification on why this integral is divergent?












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$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$



Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$



However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.



To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?










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  • $begingroup$
    As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
















0












$begingroup$


$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$



Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$



However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.



To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:53














0












0








0





$begingroup$


$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$



Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$



However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.



To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$$int_0^4 frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2} ,dx$$



Simple question, but when I evaluate this with u-substitution, I get: $frac{-1}{3}$



However, the answer states it evaluates to: $+infty$ which is divergent.



To clarify; is this divergent because there is a vertical asymptote at $x = 2$, and since the interval's range is from $0 : 4$, there exists a point where the function equals $frac{x}{0}$?







calculus integration definite-integrals






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edited Dec 9 '18 at 22:50









Moo

5,61131020




5,61131020










asked Dec 9 '18 at 21:49









pylabpylab

103




103












  • $begingroup$
    As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:53


















  • $begingroup$
    As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry Lee
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:53
















$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53




$begingroup$
As said in the answers below, evaluate the limit: $$lim_{xto 4}frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$$
$endgroup$
– Henry Lee
Dec 9 '18 at 22:53










3 Answers
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It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
$$

$$
int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









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  • $begingroup$
    Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
    $endgroup$
    – pylab
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:26












  • $begingroup$
    @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
    $endgroup$
    – GenericMathematician
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:28










  • $begingroup$
    By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
    $endgroup$
    – pylab
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:37










  • $begingroup$
    @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
    $endgroup$
    – GenericMathematician
    Dec 9 '18 at 22:39










  • $begingroup$
    Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 10 '18 at 9:43



















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No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges






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    0












    $begingroup$

    It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.



    Graph



    To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.



    $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$



    Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.



    So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.



    Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.



    Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:



    $int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$



    You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,



    $frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.



    enter image description here



    The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.






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      3 Answers
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      3 Answers
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      0












      $begingroup$

      It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
      $$

      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:26












      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:28










      • $begingroup$
        By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:37










      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:39










      • $begingroup$
        Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
        $endgroup$
        – Shubham Johri
        Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
















      0












      $begingroup$

      It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
      $$

      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:26












      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:28










      • $begingroup$
        By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:37










      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:39










      • $begingroup$
        Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
        $endgroup$
        – Shubham Johri
        Dec 10 '18 at 9:43














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$

      It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
      $$

      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      It is not just that there is a vertical asymptote in the interval you are integrating over, it is also that that specific singularity "blows up too fast". If you split that into two improper integrals and do the math, your answer will also be $infty$, but for fun you should compare the following two integrals:
      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{x^2},dx
      $$

      $$
      int_{-1}^1 frac{1}{|x|^{1/2}},dx
      $$







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:03









      GenericMathematicianGenericMathematician

      863




      863












      • $begingroup$
        Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:26












      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:28










      • $begingroup$
        By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:37










      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:39










      • $begingroup$
        Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
        $endgroup$
        – Shubham Johri
        Dec 10 '18 at 9:43


















      • $begingroup$
        Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:26












      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:28










      • $begingroup$
        By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
        $endgroup$
        – pylab
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:37










      • $begingroup$
        @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
        $endgroup$
        – GenericMathematician
        Dec 9 '18 at 22:39










      • $begingroup$
        Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
        $endgroup$
        – Shubham Johri
        Dec 10 '18 at 9:43
















      $begingroup$
      Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
      $endgroup$
      – pylab
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:26






      $begingroup$
      Not sure how I would solve it on an exam, though. Would I have to spot the VA at $x = 2$ and then solve for the limit as $x$ approaches $2$ for the antiderivative $frac{1}{4-x^2}$? Which would give me $infty$
      $endgroup$
      – pylab
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:26














      $begingroup$
      @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
      $endgroup$
      – GenericMathematician
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:28




      $begingroup$
      @pylab Well spotting the vertical asymptote is not hard; you just look for where the denominator is $0$. And if you were able to work with the original integral via $u$-substitution then you will be able to work with it split in half as well.
      $endgroup$
      – GenericMathematician
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:28












      $begingroup$
      By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
      $endgroup$
      – pylab
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:37




      $begingroup$
      By splitting it, do you mean getting the sum of $int_0^2 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ and $int_2^4 frac{1}{4-x^2} ,$ in the case of this problem? So I basically have to do this everytime there is a VA? (I know that if one of them evaluates to $infty$ then it's divergent)
      $endgroup$
      – pylab
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:37












      $begingroup$
      @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
      $endgroup$
      – GenericMathematician
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:39




      $begingroup$
      @pylab Yes, you absolutely must split over every VA that appears in your interval of integration. As soon as one of them diverges, then yes, the entire integral will diverge.
      $endgroup$
      – GenericMathematician
      Dec 9 '18 at 22:39












      $begingroup$
      Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
      $endgroup$
      – Shubham Johri
      Dec 10 '18 at 9:43




      $begingroup$
      Are you sure about this? $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_{0}^1frac1xdx$, both of which diverge, but the integral converges to $0$
      $endgroup$
      – Shubham Johri
      Dec 10 '18 at 9:43











      0












      $begingroup$

      No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        0












        $begingroup$

        No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No. The function$$begin{array}{rccc}fcolon&(0,1]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&dfrac1{sqrt x}end{array}$$also as a vertical asymptote at $0$; however, the integral $int_0^1f(x),mathrm dx$ converges







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 9 '18 at 22:06









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          162k22129233




          162k22129233























              0












              $begingroup$

              It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.



              Graph



              To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.



              $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$



              Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.



              So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.



              Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.



              Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:



              $int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$



              You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,



              $frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.



              enter image description here



              The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.



                Graph



                To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.



                $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$



                Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.



                So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.



                Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.



                Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:



                $int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$



                You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,



                $frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.



                enter image description here



                The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.



                  Graph



                  To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.



                  $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$



                  Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.



                  So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.



                  Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.



                  Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:



                  $int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$



                  You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,



                  $frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.



                  enter image description here



                  The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  It is not necessary that the integral will diverge if there are vertical asymptotes in the domain of integration. Consider, for example, $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$. The function $frac1x$ has a vertical asymptote at $x=0$, yet the integral converges to $0$.



                  Graph



                  To see why this is happening, split the integral at the vertical asymptote.



                  $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx=int_{-1}^0frac1xdx+int_0^1frac1xdx=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}$



                  Now note that in the first term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the left side, or $xto0^-$; in the second term, $x$ approaches $0$ from the right side, that is $xto0^+$. But in both cases, $|x|to0^+$, so the value of the integral $I=ln|x|Big|_{x=-1}^{x=0}+ln|x|Big|_{x=0}^{x=1}=-ln|-1|+ln1+ln|x|Big|_{xto0^+}^{xto0^-}=0$, because $ln|0^-|-ln|0^+|=lim_{hto0}ln h-ln h=0 (infty-infty$ form$)$.



                  So while $int_0^1frac1xdx$ "blows up", $int_{-1}^1frac1xdx$ is $0$ because the "negative" area to the left of $0$ also "blows up" at the same rate and neutralizes the "positive" area to its right.



                  Now, coming to your question, one thing you can note right away is that the integrand $frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}$ is non-negative in $[0,4]$, so the area under the curve cannot be $-1/3$. When you observe this, you know something fishy is going on.



                  Again, split up the integral at the vertical asymptote:



                  $int_0^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=int_0^2frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx+int_2^4frac{2x}{(4-x^2)^2}dx=frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4$



                  You can see that both the terms of the integral diverge as was the case with $frac1x$, but carefully note the sign of the $infty$ they diverge to. In the first term, $xto2^-implies4-x^2to0^+impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to+infty$. In the second term, $xto2^+implies4-x^2to0^-impliesfrac1{4-x^2}to-infty$. So,



                  $frac1{4-x^2}Big|_0^2+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_2^4=-frac13+frac1{4-x^2}Big|_{xto2^+}^{xto2^-}=-frac13+lim_{hto0}frac1{4-(2-h)^2}-frac1{4-(2+h)^2}to+infty (infty+infty)$ form.



                  enter image description here



                  The crux of the answer is that it is not necessary for an integral to diverge merely because of the presence a vertical asymptote in the domain of integration. Both the rate of growth of the integral about the asymptote and the sign of the values of it takes in that neighbourhood contribute to the convergence of the integral.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:48









                  Shubham JohriShubham Johri

                  5,192717




                  5,192717






























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