Why we cannot completely get rid of bias?
$begingroup$
I know in stats we can only converge to minimum the impact of bias in the problem. But when a layman asked me why we cannot completely get rid of bias, I don't know how to explain it in a simple and reasonable way. Can anyone help? Thanks!
measure-theory
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know in stats we can only converge to minimum the impact of bias in the problem. But when a layman asked me why we cannot completely get rid of bias, I don't know how to explain it in a simple and reasonable way. Can anyone help? Thanks!
measure-theory
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know in stats we can only converge to minimum the impact of bias in the problem. But when a layman asked me why we cannot completely get rid of bias, I don't know how to explain it in a simple and reasonable way. Can anyone help? Thanks!
measure-theory
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
$endgroup$
I know in stats we can only converge to minimum the impact of bias in the problem. But when a layman asked me why we cannot completely get rid of bias, I don't know how to explain it in a simple and reasonable way. Can anyone help? Thanks!
measure-theory
measure-theory
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
asked Nov 29 '18 at 20:50
Bridget HuangBridget Huang
61
61
add a comment |
add a comment |
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