If $ sum a_n$ converges, does $sumlimits_{n=2}^{infty} frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$...
$begingroup$
If $ sum a_n$ converges and $a_n>0$ for every $n$, does $sumlimits_{n=2}^{infty} frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$ converge as well?
What I did: Define $u_n=frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$. Trying to use the ratio test, I consider:
$$ frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{n^{a_{n+1}}-1}{n^{a_{n}}-1}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}$$
and now:
$$ frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} rightarrow 1 $$
$$ sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} rightarrow g in (0;1) $$
but what can I do with the last ratio $$frac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}} ?$$
Or has somebody any other idea for this task?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $ sum a_n$ converges and $a_n>0$ for every $n$, does $sumlimits_{n=2}^{infty} frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$ converge as well?
What I did: Define $u_n=frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$. Trying to use the ratio test, I consider:
$$ frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{n^{a_{n+1}}-1}{n^{a_{n}}-1}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}$$
and now:
$$ frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} rightarrow 1 $$
$$ sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} rightarrow g in (0;1) $$
but what can I do with the last ratio $$frac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}} ?$$
Or has somebody any other idea for this task?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $ sum a_n$ converges and $a_n>0$ for every $n$, does $sumlimits_{n=2}^{infty} frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$ converge as well?
What I did: Define $u_n=frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$. Trying to use the ratio test, I consider:
$$ frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{n^{a_{n+1}}-1}{n^{a_{n}}-1}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}$$
and now:
$$ frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} rightarrow 1 $$
$$ sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} rightarrow g in (0;1) $$
but what can I do with the last ratio $$frac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}} ?$$
Or has somebody any other idea for this task?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
If $ sum a_n$ converges and $a_n>0$ for every $n$, does $sumlimits_{n=2}^{infty} frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$ converge as well?
What I did: Define $u_n=frac{sqrt{a_n}}{ln n}cdot left( n^{a_n}-1 right)$. Trying to use the ratio test, I consider:
$$ frac{u_{n+1}}{u_n}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{n^{a_{n+1}}-1}{n^{a_{n}}-1}=frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} cdot sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} cdotfrac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}$$
and now:
$$ frac{ln(n)}{ln(n+1)} rightarrow 1 $$
$$ sqrt{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}} rightarrow g in (0;1) $$
but what can I do with the last ratio $$frac{frac{n^{a_{n+1}}}{n^{a_{n}}}-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}}{1-frac{1}{n^{a_{n}}}} ?$$
Or has somebody any other idea for this task?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
real-analysis sequences-and-series
edited Dec 17 '18 at 18:41
Did
248k23226465
248k23226465
asked Dec 17 '18 at 17:34
VirtualUserVirtualUser
1,096117
1,096117
1
$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48
1
1
$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48
$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
0. Note that the ratio test here is completely useless, because you do not know anything about $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ (it could even have a subsequence going to infinity).
1. Assume $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$. Then, $$frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)=(exp(log(n)a_n)-1)frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)} leq Ca_n^{3/2} leq C’a_n$$ so the series converges.
2. Without the assumption that $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$, the series may diverge, see example below.
Take $a_{2^{p^4}}=p^{-2}$ (and zero everywhere else). Then, $sum_n{|a_n|}=sum_p{p^{-2}}$ converges.
However, $a_{2^{p^4}}log(2^{p^4}) =log(2) p^2 rightarrow infty$, thus $a_n neq O((log(n)^{-1})$.
Furthermore,
$$sum_n{frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)} = sum_p{frac{p^{-1}}{log(2)p^4}(2^{p^2}-1)}=infty$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
|
show 1 more comment
Your Answer
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$begingroup$
0. Note that the ratio test here is completely useless, because you do not know anything about $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ (it could even have a subsequence going to infinity).
1. Assume $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$. Then, $$frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)=(exp(log(n)a_n)-1)frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)} leq Ca_n^{3/2} leq C’a_n$$ so the series converges.
2. Without the assumption that $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$, the series may diverge, see example below.
Take $a_{2^{p^4}}=p^{-2}$ (and zero everywhere else). Then, $sum_n{|a_n|}=sum_p{p^{-2}}$ converges.
However, $a_{2^{p^4}}log(2^{p^4}) =log(2) p^2 rightarrow infty$, thus $a_n neq O((log(n)^{-1})$.
Furthermore,
$$sum_n{frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)} = sum_p{frac{p^{-1}}{log(2)p^4}(2^{p^2}-1)}=infty$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
0. Note that the ratio test here is completely useless, because you do not know anything about $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ (it could even have a subsequence going to infinity).
1. Assume $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$. Then, $$frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)=(exp(log(n)a_n)-1)frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)} leq Ca_n^{3/2} leq C’a_n$$ so the series converges.
2. Without the assumption that $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$, the series may diverge, see example below.
Take $a_{2^{p^4}}=p^{-2}$ (and zero everywhere else). Then, $sum_n{|a_n|}=sum_p{p^{-2}}$ converges.
However, $a_{2^{p^4}}log(2^{p^4}) =log(2) p^2 rightarrow infty$, thus $a_n neq O((log(n)^{-1})$.
Furthermore,
$$sum_n{frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)} = sum_p{frac{p^{-1}}{log(2)p^4}(2^{p^2}-1)}=infty$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
0. Note that the ratio test here is completely useless, because you do not know anything about $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ (it could even have a subsequence going to infinity).
1. Assume $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$. Then, $$frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)=(exp(log(n)a_n)-1)frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)} leq Ca_n^{3/2} leq C’a_n$$ so the series converges.
2. Without the assumption that $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$, the series may diverge, see example below.
Take $a_{2^{p^4}}=p^{-2}$ (and zero everywhere else). Then, $sum_n{|a_n|}=sum_p{p^{-2}}$ converges.
However, $a_{2^{p^4}}log(2^{p^4}) =log(2) p^2 rightarrow infty$, thus $a_n neq O((log(n)^{-1})$.
Furthermore,
$$sum_n{frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)} = sum_p{frac{p^{-1}}{log(2)p^4}(2^{p^2}-1)}=infty$$
$endgroup$
0. Note that the ratio test here is completely useless, because you do not know anything about $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ (it could even have a subsequence going to infinity).
1. Assume $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$. Then, $$frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)=(exp(log(n)a_n)-1)frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)} leq Ca_n^{3/2} leq C’a_n$$ so the series converges.
2. Without the assumption that $a_n=O(log(n)^{-1})$, the series may diverge, see example below.
Take $a_{2^{p^4}}=p^{-2}$ (and zero everywhere else). Then, $sum_n{|a_n|}=sum_p{p^{-2}}$ converges.
However, $a_{2^{p^4}}log(2^{p^4}) =log(2) p^2 rightarrow infty$, thus $a_n neq O((log(n)^{-1})$.
Furthermore,
$$sum_n{frac{a_n^{1/2}}{log(n)}(n^{a_n}-1)} = sum_p{frac{p^{-1}}{log(2)p^4}(2^{p^2}-1)}=infty$$
edited Dec 18 '18 at 11:12
Did
248k23226465
248k23226465
answered Dec 17 '18 at 18:08
MindlackMindlack
4,920211
4,920211
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
|
show 1 more comment
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
1
1
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am afraid it is not. See the counter-example at the end.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 18:11
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
I am looking at this and I am not able to understand why we can assume that $ a_n=O(log(n)^{-1}) $ ?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 18:54
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
The point is that we cannot. If $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$, then the second series converges. Else, it is possible that it does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:19
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
$begingroup$
We cannot? But you done this in your proposition?
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Dec 17 '18 at 20:21
1
1
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
$begingroup$
I thought I had made myself clear. I proved two things: 1) in general the series needs not converge. 2) if $a_n$ is $O(log(n)^{-1})$ then the series converges.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Dec 17 '18 at 20:34
|
show 1 more comment
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$begingroup$
We still can have $g=1$ and $sumlimits_{n=1} a_n < infty$ ...
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Dec 17 '18 at 17:48