Find $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty}...












0












$begingroup$



For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    They are correct, but what is the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:40










  • $begingroup$
    to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:44










  • $begingroup$
    and how can i show that it is right?
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you :)
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:49
















0












$begingroup$



For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    They are correct, but what is the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:40










  • $begingroup$
    to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:44










  • $begingroup$
    and how can i show that it is right?
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you :)
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:49














0












0








0





$begingroup$



For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.







elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 29 '18 at 10:09









miracle173

7,33322247




7,33322247










asked Nov 29 '18 at 9:36









math.troublemath.trouble

566




566












  • $begingroup$
    They are correct, but what is the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:40










  • $begingroup$
    to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:44










  • $begingroup$
    and how can i show that it is right?
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you :)
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:49


















  • $begingroup$
    They are correct, but what is the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:40










  • $begingroup$
    to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:44










  • $begingroup$
    and how can i show that it is right?
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    $endgroup$
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:47












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you :)
    $endgroup$
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 '18 at 9:49
















$begingroup$
They are correct, but what is the question?
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 29 '18 at 9:40




$begingroup$
They are correct, but what is the question?
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 29 '18 at 9:40












$begingroup$
to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:44




$begingroup$
to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:44












$begingroup$
and how can i show that it is right?
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:47




$begingroup$
and how can i show that it is right?
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:47




1




1




$begingroup$
I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Nov 29 '18 at 9:47






$begingroup$
I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
$endgroup$
– Arnaud D.
Nov 29 '18 at 9:47














$begingroup$
yes, thank you :)
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:49




$begingroup$
yes, thank you :)
$endgroup$
– math.trouble
Nov 29 '18 at 9:49










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



$$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



$$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



    Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        0












        $begingroup$

        $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



        Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



        $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
        n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



        So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



        $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



        $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
        n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



        equivalently



        $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
        lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



        So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



        $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
        x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
        end{cases}$$



        I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3018409%2ffind-bigcap-m-0-infty-bigcup-n-0-infty-a-n-m-and-bigcup-m-0%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes








          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



          $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



          $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
          $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
          $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



          Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
          The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            1












            $begingroup$

            First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



            $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



            $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
            $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
            $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



            Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
            The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



              $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



              Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
              The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



              $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



              Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
              The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 29 '18 at 10:03









              RchnRchn

              49015




              49015























                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                  Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                    Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                      Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                      Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 29 '18 at 10:27









                      Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

                      15.3k3939




                      15.3k3939























                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            0












                            $begingroup$

                            Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              0












                              0








                              0





                              $begingroup$

                              Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Nov 29 '18 at 10:06









                              Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

                              53.2k32055




                              53.2k32055























                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                  Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                  n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                  So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                  $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                  n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                  equivalently



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                  lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                  So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                  $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                  x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                  end{cases}$$



                                  I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                    Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                    n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                    So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                    $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                    n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                    equivalently



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                    lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                    So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                    $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                    x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                    end{cases}$$



                                    I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                      Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                      So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                      $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                      equivalently



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                      So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                      $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                      x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                      end{cases}$$



                                      I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                      Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                      So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                      $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                      equivalently



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                      So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                      $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                      x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                      end{cases}$$



                                      I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 29 '18 at 10:26









                                      DanielVDanielV

                                      17.8k42754




                                      17.8k42754






























                                          draft saved

                                          draft discarded




















































                                          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                                          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                          But avoid



                                          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                                          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                                          draft saved


                                          draft discarded














                                          StackExchange.ready(
                                          function () {
                                          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3018409%2ffind-bigcap-m-0-infty-bigcup-n-0-infty-a-n-m-and-bigcup-m-0%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                                          }
                                          );

                                          Post as a guest















                                          Required, but never shown





















































                                          Required, but never shown














                                          Required, but never shown












                                          Required, but never shown







                                          Required, but never shown

































                                          Required, but never shown














                                          Required, but never shown












                                          Required, but never shown







                                          Required, but never shown







                                          Popular posts from this blog

                                          Plaza Victoria

                                          Puebla de Zaragoza

                                          Musa