Fourier transform of $C^1$ class function












1












$begingroup$


I am struggle to prove the following theorem.



If $f$ $in$ $C^1$ and $f$ , $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ , then $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$$L^1$.



($mathcal{F}$$f$ is Fourier transform of $f$ )



I doubt that whether this theorem is right.



Please tell me proof or counterexample.



(following statement is supplement)



I already know that $f$ is bounded , $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$ $L^2$ and $f$ $in$ $L^2$ under the hypothesis.



And, since $f$, $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ then $mathcal{F}$$f$ , $mathcal{F}$$f'$ is bounded.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 10:27












  • $begingroup$
    @reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 11:28










  • $begingroup$
    @reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:15


















1












$begingroup$


I am struggle to prove the following theorem.



If $f$ $in$ $C^1$ and $f$ , $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ , then $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$$L^1$.



($mathcal{F}$$f$ is Fourier transform of $f$ )



I doubt that whether this theorem is right.



Please tell me proof or counterexample.



(following statement is supplement)



I already know that $f$ is bounded , $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$ $L^2$ and $f$ $in$ $L^2$ under the hypothesis.



And, since $f$, $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ then $mathcal{F}$$f$ , $mathcal{F}$$f'$ is bounded.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 10:27












  • $begingroup$
    @reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 11:28










  • $begingroup$
    @reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:15
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am struggle to prove the following theorem.



If $f$ $in$ $C^1$ and $f$ , $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ , then $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$$L^1$.



($mathcal{F}$$f$ is Fourier transform of $f$ )



I doubt that whether this theorem is right.



Please tell me proof or counterexample.



(following statement is supplement)



I already know that $f$ is bounded , $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$ $L^2$ and $f$ $in$ $L^2$ under the hypothesis.



And, since $f$, $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ then $mathcal{F}$$f$ , $mathcal{F}$$f'$ is bounded.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am struggle to prove the following theorem.



If $f$ $in$ $C^1$ and $f$ , $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ , then $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$$L^1$.



($mathcal{F}$$f$ is Fourier transform of $f$ )



I doubt that whether this theorem is right.



Please tell me proof or counterexample.



(following statement is supplement)



I already know that $f$ is bounded , $mathcal{F}$$f$ $in$ $L^2$ and $f$ $in$ $L^2$ under the hypothesis.



And, since $f$, $f'$ $in$ $L^1$ then $mathcal{F}$$f$ , $mathcal{F}$$f'$ is bounded.







real-analysis fourier-analysis lebesgue-integral






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 29 '18 at 16:50









Davide Giraudo

125k16150261




125k16150261










asked Nov 29 '18 at 10:19









NikolaiNikolai

65




65












  • $begingroup$
    $f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 10:27












  • $begingroup$
    @reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 11:28










  • $begingroup$
    @reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:15




















  • $begingroup$
    $f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 10:27












  • $begingroup$
    @reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 11:28










  • $begingroup$
    @reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Nikolai
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:15


















$begingroup$
$f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 10:27






$begingroup$
$f' in L^2$ so $mathcal{F} [f'] = iomega hat{f} in L^2$ whence $langle 1/(1+|omega|),(1+|omega|) |hat{f}| rangle le ...$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 10:27














$begingroup$
@reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
$endgroup$
– Nikolai
Nov 29 '18 at 11:28




$begingroup$
@reuns Why f' is belong to L2 ?
$endgroup$
– Nikolai
Nov 29 '18 at 11:28












$begingroup$
@reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Nikolai
Nov 29 '18 at 12:02






$begingroup$
@reuns If $f'$ is bounded, your inequality is correct. But, only $f'$ in $L^1$, can't lead $f'$ is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Nikolai
Nov 29 '18 at 12:02














$begingroup$
Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 12:06






$begingroup$
Sorry I missed the ambiguity : you should read $C^1$ as the Banach space with sup norm of $f$ and $f'$. If you read it as just "continuously differentiable" it is very possible the claim isn't true
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 12:06














$begingroup$
Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 12:15






$begingroup$
Otherwise we can look at something like $f' ast |x|^{-1/2+epsilon}$ to obtain that $(1+| omega|^{1/2+epsilon}) hat{f} in L^2$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Nov 29 '18 at 12:15












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