disprove: $A$, $B$, $C$ are pairwise disjoint subsets of $V$; $Acup B$, $Acup C$ are bases of $V$; then...












0












$begingroup$



Prove or disprove:

If $A$, $B$ and $C$ are pairwise disjoint subsets of vector space $V$, such that $Acup B$ and $Acup C$ are bases of $V$, then $Span(B)=Span(C)$.




I consider an example:

I take $A={(1,0)}$, $B={(0,1)}$ and $C={(1,1)}$ as subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$.





I know that this one example is enough to disprove the statement. However, I want to know how to go about with proving/disproving this claim, if I were to do it using no specific examples.


Would proof by contradiction where, we take
$(1)$ $A$ and $B$ such that ${A,B}$ is linearly independent, and
$(2)$ $C$, every element of which can be expressed as a linear combination of $A$ and $B$ (satisfying other conditions)

be enough/correct?










share|cite|improve this question









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    0












    $begingroup$



    Prove or disprove:

    If $A$, $B$ and $C$ are pairwise disjoint subsets of vector space $V$, such that $Acup B$ and $Acup C$ are bases of $V$, then $Span(B)=Span(C)$.




    I consider an example:

    I take $A={(1,0)}$, $B={(0,1)}$ and $C={(1,1)}$ as subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$.





    I know that this one example is enough to disprove the statement. However, I want to know how to go about with proving/disproving this claim, if I were to do it using no specific examples.


    Would proof by contradiction where, we take
    $(1)$ $A$ and $B$ such that ${A,B}$ is linearly independent, and
    $(2)$ $C$, every element of which can be expressed as a linear combination of $A$ and $B$ (satisfying other conditions)

    be enough/correct?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Prove or disprove:

      If $A$, $B$ and $C$ are pairwise disjoint subsets of vector space $V$, such that $Acup B$ and $Acup C$ are bases of $V$, then $Span(B)=Span(C)$.




      I consider an example:

      I take $A={(1,0)}$, $B={(0,1)}$ and $C={(1,1)}$ as subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$.





      I know that this one example is enough to disprove the statement. However, I want to know how to go about with proving/disproving this claim, if I were to do it using no specific examples.


      Would proof by contradiction where, we take
      $(1)$ $A$ and $B$ such that ${A,B}$ is linearly independent, and
      $(2)$ $C$, every element of which can be expressed as a linear combination of $A$ and $B$ (satisfying other conditions)

      be enough/correct?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Prove or disprove:

      If $A$, $B$ and $C$ are pairwise disjoint subsets of vector space $V$, such that $Acup B$ and $Acup C$ are bases of $V$, then $Span(B)=Span(C)$.




      I consider an example:

      I take $A={(1,0)}$, $B={(0,1)}$ and $C={(1,1)}$ as subsets of $mathbb{R}^2$.





      I know that this one example is enough to disprove the statement. However, I want to know how to go about with proving/disproving this claim, if I were to do it using no specific examples.


      Would proof by contradiction where, we take
      $(1)$ $A$ and $B$ such that ${A,B}$ is linearly independent, and
      $(2)$ $C$, every element of which can be expressed as a linear combination of $A$ and $B$ (satisfying other conditions)

      be enough/correct?







      linear-algebra vector-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 24 '18 at 10:17









      Za IraZa Ira

      161115




      161115






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          I think that in your case you can not do a general proof of contradiction as there exist choices of $A,B,C$ and $V$ where the statement is true.
          So at some point you would need to make some assumptions as for example if $B,C$ contain exactly one element that those are not multiples of each other.



          In total, I can not think of a way to disprove this statement generally as it holds in some cases.
          But as you mentioned, your solution is perfectly fine.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            I think that in your case you can not do a general proof of contradiction as there exist choices of $A,B,C$ and $V$ where the statement is true.
            So at some point you would need to make some assumptions as for example if $B,C$ contain exactly one element that those are not multiples of each other.



            In total, I can not think of a way to disprove this statement generally as it holds in some cases.
            But as you mentioned, your solution is perfectly fine.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              I think that in your case you can not do a general proof of contradiction as there exist choices of $A,B,C$ and $V$ where the statement is true.
              So at some point you would need to make some assumptions as for example if $B,C$ contain exactly one element that those are not multiples of each other.



              In total, I can not think of a way to disprove this statement generally as it holds in some cases.
              But as you mentioned, your solution is perfectly fine.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                I think that in your case you can not do a general proof of contradiction as there exist choices of $A,B,C$ and $V$ where the statement is true.
                So at some point you would need to make some assumptions as for example if $B,C$ contain exactly one element that those are not multiples of each other.



                In total, I can not think of a way to disprove this statement generally as it holds in some cases.
                But as you mentioned, your solution is perfectly fine.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I think that in your case you can not do a general proof of contradiction as there exist choices of $A,B,C$ and $V$ where the statement is true.
                So at some point you would need to make some assumptions as for example if $B,C$ contain exactly one element that those are not multiples of each other.



                In total, I can not think of a way to disprove this statement generally as it holds in some cases.
                But as you mentioned, your solution is perfectly fine.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 24 '18 at 10:27









                Jonas LenzJonas Lenz

                694215




                694215






























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