Group cohomology of product with swapping (twisting) factors












5












$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a $G$-module, where $G = Bbb Z / 2 Bbb Z$. Define a $G$-module structure on $A = M oplus M$ by $g cdot (a,b) = (g cdot b, g cdot a)$.
What is the group cohomology $H^*(G, A)$ is terms of $H^*(G,M)$ ?



Thoughts:



I know that $H^n(G, -)$ commutes with products, but here the action on $A$ is not the diagonal action, so I'm not sure what to do here. Can we at least compute $H^1(G, A)$, provided that $H^1(G, M)=0$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 24 '18 at 15:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:05










  • $begingroup$
    (My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:14
















5












$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a $G$-module, where $G = Bbb Z / 2 Bbb Z$. Define a $G$-module structure on $A = M oplus M$ by $g cdot (a,b) = (g cdot b, g cdot a)$.
What is the group cohomology $H^*(G, A)$ is terms of $H^*(G,M)$ ?



Thoughts:



I know that $H^n(G, -)$ commutes with products, but here the action on $A$ is not the diagonal action, so I'm not sure what to do here. Can we at least compute $H^1(G, A)$, provided that $H^1(G, M)=0$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 24 '18 at 15:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:05










  • $begingroup$
    (My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:14














5












5








5





$begingroup$


Let $M$ be a $G$-module, where $G = Bbb Z / 2 Bbb Z$. Define a $G$-module structure on $A = M oplus M$ by $g cdot (a,b) = (g cdot b, g cdot a)$.
What is the group cohomology $H^*(G, A)$ is terms of $H^*(G,M)$ ?



Thoughts:



I know that $H^n(G, -)$ commutes with products, but here the action on $A$ is not the diagonal action, so I'm not sure what to do here. Can we at least compute $H^1(G, A)$, provided that $H^1(G, M)=0$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $M$ be a $G$-module, where $G = Bbb Z / 2 Bbb Z$. Define a $G$-module structure on $A = M oplus M$ by $g cdot (a,b) = (g cdot b, g cdot a)$.
What is the group cohomology $H^*(G, A)$ is terms of $H^*(G,M)$ ?



Thoughts:



I know that $H^n(G, -)$ commutes with products, but here the action on $A$ is not the diagonal action, so I'm not sure what to do here. Can we at least compute $H^1(G, A)$, provided that $H^1(G, M)=0$ ?







group-theory group-cohomology






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 24 '18 at 16:05







Alphonse

















asked Dec 24 '18 at 15:56









AlphonseAlphonse

2,225725




2,225725








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 24 '18 at 15:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:05










  • $begingroup$
    (My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:14














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 24 '18 at 15:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:05










  • $begingroup$
    (My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Alphonse
    Dec 24 '18 at 16:14








1




1




$begingroup$
That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 24 '18 at 15:59




$begingroup$
That does not look like a $G$-module structure to me.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 24 '18 at 15:59












$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
$endgroup$
– Alphonse
Dec 24 '18 at 16:05




$begingroup$
@LordSharktheUnknown : thank you. Actually, I only need $G = Bbb Z / 2$. (It seems to work, then).
$endgroup$
– Alphonse
Dec 24 '18 at 16:05












$begingroup$
(My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
$endgroup$
– Alphonse
Dec 24 '18 at 16:14




$begingroup$
(My question comes from something like the $Bbb C/Bbb R$-Galois action on $Bbb C^{times} times Bbb C^{times}$.)
$endgroup$
– Alphonse
Dec 24 '18 at 16:14










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

For even $n>0$, $H^n$ is the kernel of $1-g$ factored by the image of $1+g$.
The kernel of $1-g$ is the set of solutions of $(a,b)=(gcdot b,gcdot a)$
which is equivalent to $b=gcdot a$. Thus the typical element of the
kernel is $(a,gcdot a)=(a,0)+gcdot(a,0)$ lying in the image of $1+g$.
Therefore $H^n(G,M)=0$ for even $n>0$.



A similar calculation gives $H^n(G,M)=0$ for odd $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    What you have written down is the $Bbb Z/2$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2]$.



    The $G$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ is actually independent of the choice of action on $M$, up to isomorphism: the map $m otimes [g] mapsto g^-1m otimes [g]$ gives a $G$-equivariant isomorphism to $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ with the trivial action on $M$. In particular we may as well assume the action is trivial.



    If you choose a resolution $0to A_1 to A_2 to M to 0$ of $M$ by free abelian groups, this gives a short exact sequence $0 to A_1[Bbb Z/2] to A_2[Bbb Z/2] to M[Bbb Z/2] to 0$, so there is an associated long exact sequence in cohomology.



    If I can convince you that the cohomology of $Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]$ is zero in degrees larger than $0$, and that $H^0(Bbb Z/2; A[Bbb Z/2]) cong A$ naturally in free abelian groups $A$, then the long exact sequence tells us that $H^*(Bbb Z/2; M[Bbb Z/2]) = 0$ in degrees larger than 0, and gives $H^0 cong M$.



    But observe that $$H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]) cong H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2])^infty$$ and this may easily be seen to be zero at the level of the definition (in degrees larger than 0). $H^0$ is just the fixed point space, which should make the statements about it clear.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
      $endgroup$
      – user98602
      Dec 27 '18 at 16:33












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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






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    2












    $begingroup$

    For even $n>0$, $H^n$ is the kernel of $1-g$ factored by the image of $1+g$.
    The kernel of $1-g$ is the set of solutions of $(a,b)=(gcdot b,gcdot a)$
    which is equivalent to $b=gcdot a$. Thus the typical element of the
    kernel is $(a,gcdot a)=(a,0)+gcdot(a,0)$ lying in the image of $1+g$.
    Therefore $H^n(G,M)=0$ for even $n>0$.



    A similar calculation gives $H^n(G,M)=0$ for odd $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      For even $n>0$, $H^n$ is the kernel of $1-g$ factored by the image of $1+g$.
      The kernel of $1-g$ is the set of solutions of $(a,b)=(gcdot b,gcdot a)$
      which is equivalent to $b=gcdot a$. Thus the typical element of the
      kernel is $(a,gcdot a)=(a,0)+gcdot(a,0)$ lying in the image of $1+g$.
      Therefore $H^n(G,M)=0$ for even $n>0$.



      A similar calculation gives $H^n(G,M)=0$ for odd $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        For even $n>0$, $H^n$ is the kernel of $1-g$ factored by the image of $1+g$.
        The kernel of $1-g$ is the set of solutions of $(a,b)=(gcdot b,gcdot a)$
        which is equivalent to $b=gcdot a$. Thus the typical element of the
        kernel is $(a,gcdot a)=(a,0)+gcdot(a,0)$ lying in the image of $1+g$.
        Therefore $H^n(G,M)=0$ for even $n>0$.



        A similar calculation gives $H^n(G,M)=0$ for odd $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For even $n>0$, $H^n$ is the kernel of $1-g$ factored by the image of $1+g$.
        The kernel of $1-g$ is the set of solutions of $(a,b)=(gcdot b,gcdot a)$
        which is equivalent to $b=gcdot a$. Thus the typical element of the
        kernel is $(a,gcdot a)=(a,0)+gcdot(a,0)$ lying in the image of $1+g$.
        Therefore $H^n(G,M)=0$ for even $n>0$.



        A similar calculation gives $H^n(G,M)=0$ for odd $n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 24 '18 at 17:56









        Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

        109k1163136




        109k1163136























            1












            $begingroup$

            What you have written down is the $Bbb Z/2$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2]$.



            The $G$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ is actually independent of the choice of action on $M$, up to isomorphism: the map $m otimes [g] mapsto g^-1m otimes [g]$ gives a $G$-equivariant isomorphism to $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ with the trivial action on $M$. In particular we may as well assume the action is trivial.



            If you choose a resolution $0to A_1 to A_2 to M to 0$ of $M$ by free abelian groups, this gives a short exact sequence $0 to A_1[Bbb Z/2] to A_2[Bbb Z/2] to M[Bbb Z/2] to 0$, so there is an associated long exact sequence in cohomology.



            If I can convince you that the cohomology of $Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]$ is zero in degrees larger than $0$, and that $H^0(Bbb Z/2; A[Bbb Z/2]) cong A$ naturally in free abelian groups $A$, then the long exact sequence tells us that $H^*(Bbb Z/2; M[Bbb Z/2]) = 0$ in degrees larger than 0, and gives $H^0 cong M$.



            But observe that $$H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]) cong H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2])^infty$$ and this may easily be seen to be zero at the level of the definition (in degrees larger than 0). $H^0$ is just the fixed point space, which should make the statements about it clear.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
              $endgroup$
              – user98602
              Dec 27 '18 at 16:33
















            1












            $begingroup$

            What you have written down is the $Bbb Z/2$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2]$.



            The $G$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ is actually independent of the choice of action on $M$, up to isomorphism: the map $m otimes [g] mapsto g^-1m otimes [g]$ gives a $G$-equivariant isomorphism to $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ with the trivial action on $M$. In particular we may as well assume the action is trivial.



            If you choose a resolution $0to A_1 to A_2 to M to 0$ of $M$ by free abelian groups, this gives a short exact sequence $0 to A_1[Bbb Z/2] to A_2[Bbb Z/2] to M[Bbb Z/2] to 0$, so there is an associated long exact sequence in cohomology.



            If I can convince you that the cohomology of $Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]$ is zero in degrees larger than $0$, and that $H^0(Bbb Z/2; A[Bbb Z/2]) cong A$ naturally in free abelian groups $A$, then the long exact sequence tells us that $H^*(Bbb Z/2; M[Bbb Z/2]) = 0$ in degrees larger than 0, and gives $H^0 cong M$.



            But observe that $$H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]) cong H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2])^infty$$ and this may easily be seen to be zero at the level of the definition (in degrees larger than 0). $H^0$ is just the fixed point space, which should make the statements about it clear.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
              $endgroup$
              – user98602
              Dec 27 '18 at 16:33














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            What you have written down is the $Bbb Z/2$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2]$.



            The $G$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ is actually independent of the choice of action on $M$, up to isomorphism: the map $m otimes [g] mapsto g^-1m otimes [g]$ gives a $G$-equivariant isomorphism to $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ with the trivial action on $M$. In particular we may as well assume the action is trivial.



            If you choose a resolution $0to A_1 to A_2 to M to 0$ of $M$ by free abelian groups, this gives a short exact sequence $0 to A_1[Bbb Z/2] to A_2[Bbb Z/2] to M[Bbb Z/2] to 0$, so there is an associated long exact sequence in cohomology.



            If I can convince you that the cohomology of $Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]$ is zero in degrees larger than $0$, and that $H^0(Bbb Z/2; A[Bbb Z/2]) cong A$ naturally in free abelian groups $A$, then the long exact sequence tells us that $H^*(Bbb Z/2; M[Bbb Z/2]) = 0$ in degrees larger than 0, and gives $H^0 cong M$.



            But observe that $$H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]) cong H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2])^infty$$ and this may easily be seen to be zero at the level of the definition (in degrees larger than 0). $H^0$ is just the fixed point space, which should make the statements about it clear.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            What you have written down is the $Bbb Z/2$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2]$.



            The $G$-module $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ is actually independent of the choice of action on $M$, up to isomorphism: the map $m otimes [g] mapsto g^-1m otimes [g]$ gives a $G$-equivariant isomorphism to $M otimes Bbb Z[G]$ with the trivial action on $M$. In particular we may as well assume the action is trivial.



            If you choose a resolution $0to A_1 to A_2 to M to 0$ of $M$ by free abelian groups, this gives a short exact sequence $0 to A_1[Bbb Z/2] to A_2[Bbb Z/2] to M[Bbb Z/2] to 0$, so there is an associated long exact sequence in cohomology.



            If I can convince you that the cohomology of $Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]$ is zero in degrees larger than $0$, and that $H^0(Bbb Z/2; A[Bbb Z/2]) cong A$ naturally in free abelian groups $A$, then the long exact sequence tells us that $H^*(Bbb Z/2; M[Bbb Z/2]) = 0$ in degrees larger than 0, and gives $H^0 cong M$.



            But observe that $$H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z^infty[Bbb Z/2]) cong H^*(Bbb Z/2; Bbb Z[Bbb Z/2])^infty$$ and this may easily be seen to be zero at the level of the definition (in degrees larger than 0). $H^0$ is just the fixed point space, which should make the statements about it clear.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 24 '18 at 17:39







            user98602



















            • $begingroup$
              I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
              $endgroup$
              – user98602
              Dec 27 '18 at 16:33


















            • $begingroup$
              I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
              $endgroup$
              – user98602
              Dec 27 '18 at 16:33
















            $begingroup$
            I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
            $endgroup$
            – user98602
            Dec 27 '18 at 16:33




            $begingroup$
            I remark that this same argument shows $M[G]$ has cohomology concentrated in degree 0 for any $G$ and any $G$-module $M$.
            $endgroup$
            – user98602
            Dec 27 '18 at 16:33


















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