Apparent inconsistency in the expectation of max of IID RVs












0














$X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$ are $n$ IID RVs. $Z = mathrm{max}(X_1, X_2, dots, X_n)$.



Now define $I$ as follows:
$I = i$ when $X_i$ is the maximum of $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$.
Using law of total expectation we can write
$$
E[Z] = E[E[Z|I]] = E[X_I] = E[X]
$$

This says that $Z$ and any $X_i$ have the same expectation. But it can be shown that the CDF of $Z$ is $F_X^n$. This is contradictory as it suggests that RVs with CDFs $F$ and $F^n$ for any integer $n$ have the same expectation which is false for the simple case of $U(0, 1)$ RVs.



What is wrong with the application of law of total expectation above?










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    $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$ are $n$ IID RVs. $Z = mathrm{max}(X_1, X_2, dots, X_n)$.



    Now define $I$ as follows:
    $I = i$ when $X_i$ is the maximum of $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$.
    Using law of total expectation we can write
    $$
    E[Z] = E[E[Z|I]] = E[X_I] = E[X]
    $$

    This says that $Z$ and any $X_i$ have the same expectation. But it can be shown that the CDF of $Z$ is $F_X^n$. This is contradictory as it suggests that RVs with CDFs $F$ and $F^n$ for any integer $n$ have the same expectation which is false for the simple case of $U(0, 1)$ RVs.



    What is wrong with the application of law of total expectation above?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$ are $n$ IID RVs. $Z = mathrm{max}(X_1, X_2, dots, X_n)$.



      Now define $I$ as follows:
      $I = i$ when $X_i$ is the maximum of $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$.
      Using law of total expectation we can write
      $$
      E[Z] = E[E[Z|I]] = E[X_I] = E[X]
      $$

      This says that $Z$ and any $X_i$ have the same expectation. But it can be shown that the CDF of $Z$ is $F_X^n$. This is contradictory as it suggests that RVs with CDFs $F$ and $F^n$ for any integer $n$ have the same expectation which is false for the simple case of $U(0, 1)$ RVs.



      What is wrong with the application of law of total expectation above?










      share|cite|improve this question













      $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$ are $n$ IID RVs. $Z = mathrm{max}(X_1, X_2, dots, X_n)$.



      Now define $I$ as follows:
      $I = i$ when $X_i$ is the maximum of $X_1, X_2, dots, X_n$.
      Using law of total expectation we can write
      $$
      E[Z] = E[E[Z|I]] = E[X_I] = E[X]
      $$

      This says that $Z$ and any $X_i$ have the same expectation. But it can be shown that the CDF of $Z$ is $F_X^n$. This is contradictory as it suggests that RVs with CDFs $F$ and $F^n$ for any integer $n$ have the same expectation which is false for the simple case of $U(0, 1)$ RVs.



      What is wrong with the application of law of total expectation above?







      probability conditional-expectation expected-value






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      asked Nov 26 '18 at 13:08









      Priyatham

      2,1641028




      2,1641028






















          1 Answer
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          The problem isn't the law of total expectation. Rather, it's the claim $mathbb{E}[X_I] = mathbb{E}[X]$ that is false, because your index is a function of all $X$s.



          In fact, you can skip the law of total expectation altogether, and use the definition definition of $I$ to write $Z = X_I$ and $mathbb{E}[Z] = mathbb{E}[X_I]$.



          EDIT: Here's some more details about the expectation of $X_I$. Here I use $J(I=i)$ for the indicator function as $I$ is already used.



          $$mathbb{E}[X_I] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)]$$



          Due to the symmetric setting, $I$ is uniformly distributed. If, in some other setting, $J(I=i)$ and $X_i$ were independent, we could then continue
          $$sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i]mathbb{P}[I=i] = frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}{X_i} = mathbb{E}[X]$$



          However, in our problem this is not the case. $I$ is a function of $(X_1 dots X_n)$ - it's the index of the maximum. Therefore, they're highly correlated instead: The larger $X_i$ is, the more likely it is that $I=i$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
            – Priyatham
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:39










          • @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
            – Todor Markov
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:46













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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2














          The problem isn't the law of total expectation. Rather, it's the claim $mathbb{E}[X_I] = mathbb{E}[X]$ that is false, because your index is a function of all $X$s.



          In fact, you can skip the law of total expectation altogether, and use the definition definition of $I$ to write $Z = X_I$ and $mathbb{E}[Z] = mathbb{E}[X_I]$.



          EDIT: Here's some more details about the expectation of $X_I$. Here I use $J(I=i)$ for the indicator function as $I$ is already used.



          $$mathbb{E}[X_I] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)]$$



          Due to the symmetric setting, $I$ is uniformly distributed. If, in some other setting, $J(I=i)$ and $X_i$ were independent, we could then continue
          $$sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i]mathbb{P}[I=i] = frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}{X_i} = mathbb{E}[X]$$



          However, in our problem this is not the case. $I$ is a function of $(X_1 dots X_n)$ - it's the index of the maximum. Therefore, they're highly correlated instead: The larger $X_i$ is, the more likely it is that $I=i$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
            – Priyatham
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:39










          • @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
            – Todor Markov
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:46


















          2














          The problem isn't the law of total expectation. Rather, it's the claim $mathbb{E}[X_I] = mathbb{E}[X]$ that is false, because your index is a function of all $X$s.



          In fact, you can skip the law of total expectation altogether, and use the definition definition of $I$ to write $Z = X_I$ and $mathbb{E}[Z] = mathbb{E}[X_I]$.



          EDIT: Here's some more details about the expectation of $X_I$. Here I use $J(I=i)$ for the indicator function as $I$ is already used.



          $$mathbb{E}[X_I] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)]$$



          Due to the symmetric setting, $I$ is uniformly distributed. If, in some other setting, $J(I=i)$ and $X_i$ were independent, we could then continue
          $$sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i]mathbb{P}[I=i] = frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}{X_i} = mathbb{E}[X]$$



          However, in our problem this is not the case. $I$ is a function of $(X_1 dots X_n)$ - it's the index of the maximum. Therefore, they're highly correlated instead: The larger $X_i$ is, the more likely it is that $I=i$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
            – Priyatham
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:39










          • @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
            – Todor Markov
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:46
















          2












          2








          2






          The problem isn't the law of total expectation. Rather, it's the claim $mathbb{E}[X_I] = mathbb{E}[X]$ that is false, because your index is a function of all $X$s.



          In fact, you can skip the law of total expectation altogether, and use the definition definition of $I$ to write $Z = X_I$ and $mathbb{E}[Z] = mathbb{E}[X_I]$.



          EDIT: Here's some more details about the expectation of $X_I$. Here I use $J(I=i)$ for the indicator function as $I$ is already used.



          $$mathbb{E}[X_I] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)]$$



          Due to the symmetric setting, $I$ is uniformly distributed. If, in some other setting, $J(I=i)$ and $X_i$ were independent, we could then continue
          $$sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i]mathbb{P}[I=i] = frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}{X_i} = mathbb{E}[X]$$



          However, in our problem this is not the case. $I$ is a function of $(X_1 dots X_n)$ - it's the index of the maximum. Therefore, they're highly correlated instead: The larger $X_i$ is, the more likely it is that $I=i$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          The problem isn't the law of total expectation. Rather, it's the claim $mathbb{E}[X_I] = mathbb{E}[X]$ that is false, because your index is a function of all $X$s.



          In fact, you can skip the law of total expectation altogether, and use the definition definition of $I$ to write $Z = X_I$ and $mathbb{E}[Z] = mathbb{E}[X_I]$.



          EDIT: Here's some more details about the expectation of $X_I$. Here I use $J(I=i)$ for the indicator function as $I$ is already used.



          $$mathbb{E}[X_I] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)]$$



          Due to the symmetric setting, $I$ is uniformly distributed. If, in some other setting, $J(I=i)$ and $X_i$ were independent, we could then continue
          $$sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i J(I=i)] = sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}[X_i]mathbb{P}[I=i] = frac{1}{n}sum_{i=1}^n mathbb{E}{X_i} = mathbb{E}[X]$$



          However, in our problem this is not the case. $I$ is a function of $(X_1 dots X_n)$ - it's the index of the maximum. Therefore, they're highly correlated instead: The larger $X_i$ is, the more likely it is that $I=i$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 26 '18 at 15:24

























          answered Nov 26 '18 at 13:38









          Todor Markov

          1,16817




          1,16817












          • Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
            – Priyatham
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:39










          • @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
            – Todor Markov
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:46




















          • Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
            – Priyatham
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:39










          • @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
            – Todor Markov
            Nov 26 '18 at 14:46


















          Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
          – Priyatham
          Nov 26 '18 at 14:39




          Since $X_1, X_2, dots$ all have identical distribution, $E[X_1] = E[X_2] = dots = E[X_n]$
          – Priyatham
          Nov 26 '18 at 14:39












          @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
          – Todor Markov
          Nov 26 '18 at 14:46






          @Priyatham That means $mathbb{E}[X_i] = mathbb{E}[X]$ for any constant $i$. But it's not true for a random variable $I$, or for a integer-valued function $f(X_1, dots X_n)$.
          – Todor Markov
          Nov 26 '18 at 14:46




















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