Set of continous functions writable as cartesian product












1












$begingroup$


let $(X,d_X)$ and $(mathbb{R}^n,d_2)$ be metric spaces with $X$ compact.
Then the set of continuous functions is defined by
$$
C_n(X):={f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}^n ;|;f text{ continuous }}
$$



$left(C_n(X),d_{sup}right)$ is a complete and separable metric space



First question
(i): Is it necessary, that $X$ must be a metric space or is it also fine if $X$ is a compact topological space?



(ii) We can write $C_n(X)$ as the cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)$. Is this really obvious or do we have to proof this? I know, if we have $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$ than it is not obvious that we can write $C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)=C_n(X)$ because it depends on the properties of $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$.



If it is clear, that we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product, will $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}(X)$ be also complete and separable and why?



thanks










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    let $(X,d_X)$ and $(mathbb{R}^n,d_2)$ be metric spaces with $X$ compact.
    Then the set of continuous functions is defined by
    $$
    C_n(X):={f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}^n ;|;f text{ continuous }}
    $$



    $left(C_n(X),d_{sup}right)$ is a complete and separable metric space



    First question
    (i): Is it necessary, that $X$ must be a metric space or is it also fine if $X$ is a compact topological space?



    (ii) We can write $C_n(X)$ as the cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)$. Is this really obvious or do we have to proof this? I know, if we have $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$ than it is not obvious that we can write $C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)=C_n(X)$ because it depends on the properties of $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$.



    If it is clear, that we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product, will $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}(X)$ be also complete and separable and why?



    thanks










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      let $(X,d_X)$ and $(mathbb{R}^n,d_2)$ be metric spaces with $X$ compact.
      Then the set of continuous functions is defined by
      $$
      C_n(X):={f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}^n ;|;f text{ continuous }}
      $$



      $left(C_n(X),d_{sup}right)$ is a complete and separable metric space



      First question
      (i): Is it necessary, that $X$ must be a metric space or is it also fine if $X$ is a compact topological space?



      (ii) We can write $C_n(X)$ as the cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)$. Is this really obvious or do we have to proof this? I know, if we have $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$ than it is not obvious that we can write $C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)=C_n(X)$ because it depends on the properties of $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$.



      If it is clear, that we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product, will $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}(X)$ be also complete and separable and why?



      thanks










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      let $(X,d_X)$ and $(mathbb{R}^n,d_2)$ be metric spaces with $X$ compact.
      Then the set of continuous functions is defined by
      $$
      C_n(X):={f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}^n ;|;f text{ continuous }}
      $$



      $left(C_n(X),d_{sup}right)$ is a complete and separable metric space



      First question
      (i): Is it necessary, that $X$ must be a metric space or is it also fine if $X$ is a compact topological space?



      (ii) We can write $C_n(X)$ as the cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)$. Is this really obvious or do we have to proof this? I know, if we have $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$ than it is not obvious that we can write $C_1(X)times C_{n-1}(X)=C_n(X)$ because it depends on the properties of $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}$.



      If it is clear, that we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product, will $C_1$ and $C_{n-1}(X)$ be also complete and separable and why?



      thanks







      general-topology functional-analysis product-space






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 1 '18 at 11:08









      Davide Giraudo

      126k16150261




      126k16150261










      asked Dec 1 '18 at 9:55









      GeoRieGeoRie

      102




      102






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          (i) For $C_n(X)$ to be separable metric, $X$ has to be compact metrisable (e.g. see the references in this post. The result is true for both functions to the reals and finite-dimensional Euclidean space.



          (ii) A function $f: X to mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous iff all
          $pi_i circ f: X to mathbb{R}$ are continuous. So mapping $f in C_n(X)$ to $(pi_1circ f,ldots, pi_n circ f) in C_1(X)^n$ is a linear isomomorphism between the spaces, and an isometry (I think) if we give $mathbb{R}^n$ and the product $C_1(X)^n$ the max-metric (and base the $d_{text{sup}}$ on the max-metric, which is topologically the same).



          It's not a long fact to prove, but it does require a small argument such as I gave above, IMHO.



          A finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:00












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:12










          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:14











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          (i) For $C_n(X)$ to be separable metric, $X$ has to be compact metrisable (e.g. see the references in this post. The result is true for both functions to the reals and finite-dimensional Euclidean space.



          (ii) A function $f: X to mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous iff all
          $pi_i circ f: X to mathbb{R}$ are continuous. So mapping $f in C_n(X)$ to $(pi_1circ f,ldots, pi_n circ f) in C_1(X)^n$ is a linear isomomorphism between the spaces, and an isometry (I think) if we give $mathbb{R}^n$ and the product $C_1(X)^n$ the max-metric (and base the $d_{text{sup}}$ on the max-metric, which is topologically the same).



          It's not a long fact to prove, but it does require a small argument such as I gave above, IMHO.



          A finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:00












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:12










          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:14
















          2












          $begingroup$

          (i) For $C_n(X)$ to be separable metric, $X$ has to be compact metrisable (e.g. see the references in this post. The result is true for both functions to the reals and finite-dimensional Euclidean space.



          (ii) A function $f: X to mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous iff all
          $pi_i circ f: X to mathbb{R}$ are continuous. So mapping $f in C_n(X)$ to $(pi_1circ f,ldots, pi_n circ f) in C_1(X)^n$ is a linear isomomorphism between the spaces, and an isometry (I think) if we give $mathbb{R}^n$ and the product $C_1(X)^n$ the max-metric (and base the $d_{text{sup}}$ on the max-metric, which is topologically the same).



          It's not a long fact to prove, but it does require a small argument such as I gave above, IMHO.



          A finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:00












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:12










          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:14














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          (i) For $C_n(X)$ to be separable metric, $X$ has to be compact metrisable (e.g. see the references in this post. The result is true for both functions to the reals and finite-dimensional Euclidean space.



          (ii) A function $f: X to mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous iff all
          $pi_i circ f: X to mathbb{R}$ are continuous. So mapping $f in C_n(X)$ to $(pi_1circ f,ldots, pi_n circ f) in C_1(X)^n$ is a linear isomomorphism between the spaces, and an isometry (I think) if we give $mathbb{R}^n$ and the product $C_1(X)^n$ the max-metric (and base the $d_{text{sup}}$ on the max-metric, which is topologically the same).



          It's not a long fact to prove, but it does require a small argument such as I gave above, IMHO.



          A finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          (i) For $C_n(X)$ to be separable metric, $X$ has to be compact metrisable (e.g. see the references in this post. The result is true for both functions to the reals and finite-dimensional Euclidean space.



          (ii) A function $f: X to mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous iff all
          $pi_i circ f: X to mathbb{R}$ are continuous. So mapping $f in C_n(X)$ to $(pi_1circ f,ldots, pi_n circ f) in C_1(X)^n$ is a linear isomomorphism between the spaces, and an isometry (I think) if we give $mathbb{R}^n$ and the product $C_1(X)^n$ the max-metric (and base the $d_{text{sup}}$ on the max-metric, which is topologically the same).



          It's not a long fact to prove, but it does require a small argument such as I gave above, IMHO.



          A finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 1 '18 at 12:25

























          answered Dec 1 '18 at 10:43









          Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

          106k347114




          106k347114












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:00












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:12










          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:14


















          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:00












          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – GeoRie
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:12










          • $begingroup$
            @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
            $endgroup$
            – Henno Brandsma
            Dec 1 '18 at 15:14
















          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:00






          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie And $C_n(X) = C_1(X)^n$ and $C_1(X)$ is completely metrisable complete, hence so is the power. The proofs for the product are standard: the standard product metric is complete when all factors are complete and separability is obvious: a product of dense sets is dense.
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:00














          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:07






          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie $C_n(X) simeq C_1(X)^n$ is always true. From that: $C_n(X)$ is completely metrisable separable (Polish) iff $C_1(X)$ is iff $X$ is compact metrisable (as in the reference I linked to).
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:07














          $begingroup$
          Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
          $endgroup$
          – GeoRie
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:07




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for answering. (i) is only for continuous functions of that kind ${f:Xrightarrow mathbb{R}|; f ; continuous}$. So you say, that a finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type. So we can write $C_n(X)$ as cartesian product $C_n(X)=C_1(X)^n$ isn't it? Do you know a book where I can find the proof, that the finite product of completely metrisable separable spaces is still of that type?
          $endgroup$
          – GeoRie
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:07












          $begingroup$
          ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – GeoRie
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:12




          $begingroup$
          ,do you know a book, where I can read that $C_n(X)$ is isomorph to $C_1(X)^n$? Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – GeoRie
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:12












          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:14




          $begingroup$
          @GeoRie I gave the argument in the posting...
          $endgroup$
          – Henno Brandsma
          Dec 1 '18 at 15:14


















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