how to show an improper integral is well defined?












2












$begingroup$


Let $g$ be continuous on [0,1] and assume that $f$ is continuous on (0,1]. Assume further that for any $epsilonin (0,1)$, we have
begin{align*}
int_{epsilon}^{1} f(s), ds=int_{h(epsilon)}^{1} g(u),du
end{align*}

where $h(epsilon)in (0,1)$ and $h(epsilon)to 0$ as $epsilon to 0$.



I want to show that the improper integral
begin{align*}
int_{0}^{1}f(s),ds
end{align*}

is well defined.



My question is that how to show an improper integral is well defined? Do I need to use Cauthy's criterion to that this integral is bounded by some other well defined integral?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 9 '18 at 0:48


















2












$begingroup$


Let $g$ be continuous on [0,1] and assume that $f$ is continuous on (0,1]. Assume further that for any $epsilonin (0,1)$, we have
begin{align*}
int_{epsilon}^{1} f(s), ds=int_{h(epsilon)}^{1} g(u),du
end{align*}

where $h(epsilon)in (0,1)$ and $h(epsilon)to 0$ as $epsilon to 0$.



I want to show that the improper integral
begin{align*}
int_{0}^{1}f(s),ds
end{align*}

is well defined.



My question is that how to show an improper integral is well defined? Do I need to use Cauthy's criterion to that this integral is bounded by some other well defined integral?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 9 '18 at 0:48
















2












2








2





$begingroup$


Let $g$ be continuous on [0,1] and assume that $f$ is continuous on (0,1]. Assume further that for any $epsilonin (0,1)$, we have
begin{align*}
int_{epsilon}^{1} f(s), ds=int_{h(epsilon)}^{1} g(u),du
end{align*}

where $h(epsilon)in (0,1)$ and $h(epsilon)to 0$ as $epsilon to 0$.



I want to show that the improper integral
begin{align*}
int_{0}^{1}f(s),ds
end{align*}

is well defined.



My question is that how to show an improper integral is well defined? Do I need to use Cauthy's criterion to that this integral is bounded by some other well defined integral?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $g$ be continuous on [0,1] and assume that $f$ is continuous on (0,1]. Assume further that for any $epsilonin (0,1)$, we have
begin{align*}
int_{epsilon}^{1} f(s), ds=int_{h(epsilon)}^{1} g(u),du
end{align*}

where $h(epsilon)in (0,1)$ and $h(epsilon)to 0$ as $epsilon to 0$.



I want to show that the improper integral
begin{align*}
int_{0}^{1}f(s),ds
end{align*}

is well defined.



My question is that how to show an improper integral is well defined? Do I need to use Cauthy's criterion to that this integral is bounded by some other well defined integral?







real-analysis calculus improper-integrals






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 8 '18 at 23:34









GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會

13k72445




13k72445










asked Dec 8 '18 at 23:26









Jiexiong687691Jiexiong687691

825




825












  • $begingroup$
    The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 9 '18 at 0:48




















  • $begingroup$
    The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 9 '18 at 0:48


















$begingroup$
The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 9 '18 at 0:48






$begingroup$
The limit as $epsilonto 0$ of the integral on the right-hand side is $int_0^1 g(u),du$, which exists since $g$ is continuous in $[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 9 '18 at 0:48












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

The improper integral is well defined if $displaystyle lim_{epsilon to 0} int_e^1 f(s) ,ds$ exists.



Since $g$ is continuous and integrable on $[0,1]$ you can take your pick of ways to prove this.



Using the Cauchy criterion we have



$$left|int_alpha^beta f(s) , ds right| = left|int_{h(alpha)}^{h(beta)} g(s) , ds right| leqslant sup_{[0,1]}|g|,|h(beta) - h(alpha)| longrightarrow _{alpha,beta to 0} 0$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3031797%2fhow-to-show-an-improper-integral-is-well-defined%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    The improper integral is well defined if $displaystyle lim_{epsilon to 0} int_e^1 f(s) ,ds$ exists.



    Since $g$ is continuous and integrable on $[0,1]$ you can take your pick of ways to prove this.



    Using the Cauchy criterion we have



    $$left|int_alpha^beta f(s) , ds right| = left|int_{h(alpha)}^{h(beta)} g(s) , ds right| leqslant sup_{[0,1]}|g|,|h(beta) - h(alpha)| longrightarrow _{alpha,beta to 0} 0$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      The improper integral is well defined if $displaystyle lim_{epsilon to 0} int_e^1 f(s) ,ds$ exists.



      Since $g$ is continuous and integrable on $[0,1]$ you can take your pick of ways to prove this.



      Using the Cauchy criterion we have



      $$left|int_alpha^beta f(s) , ds right| = left|int_{h(alpha)}^{h(beta)} g(s) , ds right| leqslant sup_{[0,1]}|g|,|h(beta) - h(alpha)| longrightarrow _{alpha,beta to 0} 0$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The improper integral is well defined if $displaystyle lim_{epsilon to 0} int_e^1 f(s) ,ds$ exists.



        Since $g$ is continuous and integrable on $[0,1]$ you can take your pick of ways to prove this.



        Using the Cauchy criterion we have



        $$left|int_alpha^beta f(s) , ds right| = left|int_{h(alpha)}^{h(beta)} g(s) , ds right| leqslant sup_{[0,1]}|g|,|h(beta) - h(alpha)| longrightarrow _{alpha,beta to 0} 0$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The improper integral is well defined if $displaystyle lim_{epsilon to 0} int_e^1 f(s) ,ds$ exists.



        Since $g$ is continuous and integrable on $[0,1]$ you can take your pick of ways to prove this.



        Using the Cauchy criterion we have



        $$left|int_alpha^beta f(s) , ds right| = left|int_{h(alpha)}^{h(beta)} g(s) , ds right| leqslant sup_{[0,1]}|g|,|h(beta) - h(alpha)| longrightarrow _{alpha,beta to 0} 0$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 9 '18 at 0:46









        RRLRRL

        51.3k42573




        51.3k42573






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3031797%2fhow-to-show-an-improper-integral-is-well-defined%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Plaza Victoria

            Puebla de Zaragoza

            Musa