Let $K$ be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that f is not a zero-divisor. Prove that...












1












$begingroup$


Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.





















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
    not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$



    closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
      not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
      not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.







      ring-theory






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 8 '18 at 22:36









      Robert Lewis

      46.6k23067




      46.6k23067










      asked Dec 8 '18 at 22:29









      Полина СергеевнаПолина Сергеевна

      63




      63




      closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







      closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 8 '18 at 22:32









                Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                58.1k11445




                58.1k11445















                    Popular posts from this blog

                    Plaza Victoria

                    In PowerPoint, is there a keyboard shortcut for bulleted / numbered list?

                    How to put 3 figures in Latex with 2 figures side by side and 1 below these side by side images but in...