Let $K$ be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that f is not a zero-divisor. Prove that...












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Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










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closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


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    Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
    not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










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    $endgroup$



    closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.



















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      $begingroup$


      Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
      not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let K be the ring of all real functions and let $f in K$. Suppose that $f$ is
      not a zero-divisor. Prove that $f in U(K)$.







      ring-theory






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      edited Dec 8 '18 at 22:36









      Robert Lewis

      46.6k23067




      46.6k23067










      asked Dec 8 '18 at 22:29









      Полина СергеевнаПолина Сергеевна

      63




      63




      closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







      closed as off-topic by Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh Dec 9 '18 at 3:23


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Dando18, Davide Giraudo, José Carlos Santos, KReiser, Shailesh

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
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          It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It is enough to show that $E={x:f(x)=0}$ is empty. Suppose $E$ is not empty $f(x)=0$, define $g(x)=1, g(y)=0, yneq x, fg=0$. Contradiction $h(x)={1over{f(x)}}$ is the inverse of $f$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 8 '18 at 22:32









                Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                58.1k11445




                58.1k11445















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