Subgame Perfect Equilibria in a one-stage game












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Consider the following one stage game, with two players A and B.



There is a pie which is to be divided between the two players. A can offer B any fraction of the cake, which B can accept or reject. If B accepts the offer (say $1-x$), then A gets $x$ and B gets $1-x$. If B rejects the offer, both players get $0$.



As far as the Subgame Perfect Equilibria are concerned, ($1$,accept always) is definitely one such equilibrium. What about ($1-epsilon$,reject only when $x=1$), where $epsilon$ is a very small number?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Consider the following one stage game, with two players A and B.



    There is a pie which is to be divided between the two players. A can offer B any fraction of the cake, which B can accept or reject. If B accepts the offer (say $1-x$), then A gets $x$ and B gets $1-x$. If B rejects the offer, both players get $0$.



    As far as the Subgame Perfect Equilibria are concerned, ($1$,accept always) is definitely one such equilibrium. What about ($1-epsilon$,reject only when $x=1$), where $epsilon$ is a very small number?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Consider the following one stage game, with two players A and B.



      There is a pie which is to be divided between the two players. A can offer B any fraction of the cake, which B can accept or reject. If B accepts the offer (say $1-x$), then A gets $x$ and B gets $1-x$. If B rejects the offer, both players get $0$.



      As far as the Subgame Perfect Equilibria are concerned, ($1$,accept always) is definitely one such equilibrium. What about ($1-epsilon$,reject only when $x=1$), where $epsilon$ is a very small number?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider the following one stage game, with two players A and B.



      There is a pie which is to be divided between the two players. A can offer B any fraction of the cake, which B can accept or reject. If B accepts the offer (say $1-x$), then A gets $x$ and B gets $1-x$. If B rejects the offer, both players get $0$.



      As far as the Subgame Perfect Equilibria are concerned, ($1$,accept always) is definitely one such equilibrium. What about ($1-epsilon$,reject only when $x=1$), where $epsilon$ is a very small number?







      game-theory economics nash-equilibrium






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      edited Dec 23 '18 at 8:49









      mlc

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      4,89431333










      asked Dec 22 '18 at 20:10









      StudentStudent

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      5811






















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          This is not even a Nash equilibrium, because the proposer has profitable deviations: e.g., A can propose $1 - (epsilon/2)$ and B would accept it. This gives A a higher payoff: $1 - (epsilon/2)$ instead of $1 - epsilon$.






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            1 Answer
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            $begingroup$

            This is not even a Nash equilibrium, because the proposer has profitable deviations: e.g., A can propose $1 - (epsilon/2)$ and B would accept it. This gives A a higher payoff: $1 - (epsilon/2)$ instead of $1 - epsilon$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              0












              $begingroup$

              This is not even a Nash equilibrium, because the proposer has profitable deviations: e.g., A can propose $1 - (epsilon/2)$ and B would accept it. This gives A a higher payoff: $1 - (epsilon/2)$ instead of $1 - epsilon$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















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                0





                $begingroup$

                This is not even a Nash equilibrium, because the proposer has profitable deviations: e.g., A can propose $1 - (epsilon/2)$ and B would accept it. This gives A a higher payoff: $1 - (epsilon/2)$ instead of $1 - epsilon$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This is not even a Nash equilibrium, because the proposer has profitable deviations: e.g., A can propose $1 - (epsilon/2)$ and B would accept it. This gives A a higher payoff: $1 - (epsilon/2)$ instead of $1 - epsilon$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 23 '18 at 8:48









                mlcmlc

                4,89431333




                4,89431333






























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