Csdrhrt

This question pertains to the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n$ on the interval $[0,1]$.

It can be shown this sequence of functions ${f_n}$ converges point-wise to the limit $f$ where $f$ is defined by $f(x)=0$ on $[0,1)$ and $f(x)=1$ at $x=1$.

However, this sequence of functions ${f_n}$ does not converge uniformly to $f$. One way to prove this (which I have seen) is via a theorem which proves that if a sequence of functions ${f_n}$ converges uniformly to $f$, then $f$ is continuous. And clearly it is not the case that $f$ is continuous in our example, so our convergence is not uniform.

However, I have seen another test for uniform convergence on an interval $s$. That is that:

$${rm lim} [{rm sup} { | f_n(x)-f(x)| : xin S }]=0$$

This conception of uniform convergence can be found in my Walter Rudin analysis book for example. My question is, how can we use this definition of uniform convergence to show $x^n$ is not uniformly convergent?

I am having trouble seeing how to apply this definition to this example, especially since the limit $f$ is defined piece-wise. But I know I need to find the sup of the difference between $f_n$ and $f$ over the interval $[0,1]$ (how do I find this sup?). And then once I find it, I need to take the limit as $ntoinfty$ and show it does not equal $0$.

Thank you for your help!

It all boils down to proving that $$sup_{xin [0,1]}|x^n-chi_{{1}}|=sup_{xin [0,1)}|x^n-0|=sup_{xin[0,1)}x^n=1notto 0$$

I think the best way to see that this function doesn't converge uniformly on $x in [0,1]$ is to note that the limiting function is discontinuous for $x in [0,a], a<1$ and $x=1$:
$$
lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)= left{
begin{array}{rl}
0 &x in [0,a]\
1 & x=1
end{array}
right.
$$