Proving that the sum and difference of two squares (not equal to zero) can't both be squares.
I have the following task:
Prove that the sum and the difference of two squares (not equal to zero) can't both be squares.
For the sum, I thought about Pythagorean triples: $x^2+y^2=z^2$ works for an infinite amount of numbers, but why can't it occur for the sum and the difference as well?
I tried to write down this:
Assume that $a^2>b^2$. Then $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$. Summing the left and the right equation, we get $2a^2=c^2+d^2$. I am just stuck proving why this can't occur. Any ideas? Thanks for your help!
elementary-number-theory
add a comment |
I have the following task:
Prove that the sum and the difference of two squares (not equal to zero) can't both be squares.
For the sum, I thought about Pythagorean triples: $x^2+y^2=z^2$ works for an infinite amount of numbers, but why can't it occur for the sum and the difference as well?
I tried to write down this:
Assume that $a^2>b^2$. Then $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$. Summing the left and the right equation, we get $2a^2=c^2+d^2$. I am just stuck proving why this can't occur. Any ideas? Thanks for your help!
elementary-number-theory
add a comment |
I have the following task:
Prove that the sum and the difference of two squares (not equal to zero) can't both be squares.
For the sum, I thought about Pythagorean triples: $x^2+y^2=z^2$ works for an infinite amount of numbers, but why can't it occur for the sum and the difference as well?
I tried to write down this:
Assume that $a^2>b^2$. Then $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$. Summing the left and the right equation, we get $2a^2=c^2+d^2$. I am just stuck proving why this can't occur. Any ideas? Thanks for your help!
elementary-number-theory
I have the following task:
Prove that the sum and the difference of two squares (not equal to zero) can't both be squares.
For the sum, I thought about Pythagorean triples: $x^2+y^2=z^2$ works for an infinite amount of numbers, but why can't it occur for the sum and the difference as well?
I tried to write down this:
Assume that $a^2>b^2$. Then $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$. Summing the left and the right equation, we get $2a^2=c^2+d^2$. I am just stuck proving why this can't occur. Any ideas? Thanks for your help!
elementary-number-theory
elementary-number-theory
edited Apr 25 '15 at 17:34
kate
5281717
5281717
asked Apr 22 '15 at 11:13
Atvin
2,8451825
2,8451825
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
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If one has $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$, then one has $a^4-b^4=(cd)^2$.
It is known that this is impossible. See, for example, here.
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
add a comment |
This is a corollary of an old lost theorem of Fibonacci, which has a pretty proof by descent.
Fibonacci's Lost Theorem $ $ The area of an integral
pythagorean triangle is not a perfect square.
A square arithmetic progression (SAP) is an AP $rm x^2, y^2, z^2 $ with a square stepsize $rm, s^2,, $ viz. $$rm x^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} y^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} z^2$$
Naturally associated with every SAP is a "half square triangle",
ie. doubling $rm z^2 + x^2 $ produces a triangle of square area $rm s^2,, $ viz.
$rm (z + x)^2 + (z - x)^2, = 2 (z^2 + x^2) = 4 y^2 $
which indeed has $ $ area $rm, = (z + x) (z - x)/2 = (z^2 - x^2)/2 = s^2 $
With these concepts in mind, the proof is very easy:
If there exists a pythagorean triangle with square area then it
may be primitivized and its area remains square. Let its primitive
parametrization be $rm:(a,b):$ and let its area be $rm:c^2,:$ namely
$$rm frac{1}2 leg_1 leg_2, = frac{1}2 (2:a:b) (a^2-b^2) = (a!-!b) a (a!+!b) b = c^2 $$
Since $rm:a:$ and $rm:b:$ are coprime of opposite parity, $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b, b $ are coprime factors of a square, thus all must be squares.
Hence $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b $ form a SAP; doubling its half square triangle
yields a triangle with smaller square area $rm b < c^2, $ hence descent. $ $ QED
Remark $ $ This doubling construction is ancient - already in Euclid. It may be
viewed as a composition of quadratic forms $rm (z^2 + x^2) (1^2 + 1^2):. $
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
If one has $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$, then one has $a^4-b^4=(cd)^2$.
It is known that this is impossible. See, for example, here.
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
add a comment |
If one has $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$, then one has $a^4-b^4=(cd)^2$.
It is known that this is impossible. See, for example, here.
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
add a comment |
If one has $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$, then one has $a^4-b^4=(cd)^2$.
It is known that this is impossible. See, for example, here.
If one has $a^2+b^2=c^2$ and $a^2-b^2=d^2$, then one has $a^4-b^4=(cd)^2$.
It is known that this is impossible. See, for example, here.
answered Apr 22 '15 at 11:18
mathlove
91.7k881214
91.7k881214
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
add a comment |
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
1
1
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
Very nice, thanks! :)
– Atvin
Apr 22 '15 at 11:19
add a comment |
This is a corollary of an old lost theorem of Fibonacci, which has a pretty proof by descent.
Fibonacci's Lost Theorem $ $ The area of an integral
pythagorean triangle is not a perfect square.
A square arithmetic progression (SAP) is an AP $rm x^2, y^2, z^2 $ with a square stepsize $rm, s^2,, $ viz. $$rm x^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} y^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} z^2$$
Naturally associated with every SAP is a "half square triangle",
ie. doubling $rm z^2 + x^2 $ produces a triangle of square area $rm s^2,, $ viz.
$rm (z + x)^2 + (z - x)^2, = 2 (z^2 + x^2) = 4 y^2 $
which indeed has $ $ area $rm, = (z + x) (z - x)/2 = (z^2 - x^2)/2 = s^2 $
With these concepts in mind, the proof is very easy:
If there exists a pythagorean triangle with square area then it
may be primitivized and its area remains square. Let its primitive
parametrization be $rm:(a,b):$ and let its area be $rm:c^2,:$ namely
$$rm frac{1}2 leg_1 leg_2, = frac{1}2 (2:a:b) (a^2-b^2) = (a!-!b) a (a!+!b) b = c^2 $$
Since $rm:a:$ and $rm:b:$ are coprime of opposite parity, $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b, b $ are coprime factors of a square, thus all must be squares.
Hence $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b $ form a SAP; doubling its half square triangle
yields a triangle with smaller square area $rm b < c^2, $ hence descent. $ $ QED
Remark $ $ This doubling construction is ancient - already in Euclid. It may be
viewed as a composition of quadratic forms $rm (z^2 + x^2) (1^2 + 1^2):. $
add a comment |
This is a corollary of an old lost theorem of Fibonacci, which has a pretty proof by descent.
Fibonacci's Lost Theorem $ $ The area of an integral
pythagorean triangle is not a perfect square.
A square arithmetic progression (SAP) is an AP $rm x^2, y^2, z^2 $ with a square stepsize $rm, s^2,, $ viz. $$rm x^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} y^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} z^2$$
Naturally associated with every SAP is a "half square triangle",
ie. doubling $rm z^2 + x^2 $ produces a triangle of square area $rm s^2,, $ viz.
$rm (z + x)^2 + (z - x)^2, = 2 (z^2 + x^2) = 4 y^2 $
which indeed has $ $ area $rm, = (z + x) (z - x)/2 = (z^2 - x^2)/2 = s^2 $
With these concepts in mind, the proof is very easy:
If there exists a pythagorean triangle with square area then it
may be primitivized and its area remains square. Let its primitive
parametrization be $rm:(a,b):$ and let its area be $rm:c^2,:$ namely
$$rm frac{1}2 leg_1 leg_2, = frac{1}2 (2:a:b) (a^2-b^2) = (a!-!b) a (a!+!b) b = c^2 $$
Since $rm:a:$ and $rm:b:$ are coprime of opposite parity, $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b, b $ are coprime factors of a square, thus all must be squares.
Hence $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b $ form a SAP; doubling its half square triangle
yields a triangle with smaller square area $rm b < c^2, $ hence descent. $ $ QED
Remark $ $ This doubling construction is ancient - already in Euclid. It may be
viewed as a composition of quadratic forms $rm (z^2 + x^2) (1^2 + 1^2):. $
add a comment |
This is a corollary of an old lost theorem of Fibonacci, which has a pretty proof by descent.
Fibonacci's Lost Theorem $ $ The area of an integral
pythagorean triangle is not a perfect square.
A square arithmetic progression (SAP) is an AP $rm x^2, y^2, z^2 $ with a square stepsize $rm, s^2,, $ viz. $$rm x^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} y^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} z^2$$
Naturally associated with every SAP is a "half square triangle",
ie. doubling $rm z^2 + x^2 $ produces a triangle of square area $rm s^2,, $ viz.
$rm (z + x)^2 + (z - x)^2, = 2 (z^2 + x^2) = 4 y^2 $
which indeed has $ $ area $rm, = (z + x) (z - x)/2 = (z^2 - x^2)/2 = s^2 $
With these concepts in mind, the proof is very easy:
If there exists a pythagorean triangle with square area then it
may be primitivized and its area remains square. Let its primitive
parametrization be $rm:(a,b):$ and let its area be $rm:c^2,:$ namely
$$rm frac{1}2 leg_1 leg_2, = frac{1}2 (2:a:b) (a^2-b^2) = (a!-!b) a (a!+!b) b = c^2 $$
Since $rm:a:$ and $rm:b:$ are coprime of opposite parity, $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b, b $ are coprime factors of a square, thus all must be squares.
Hence $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b $ form a SAP; doubling its half square triangle
yields a triangle with smaller square area $rm b < c^2, $ hence descent. $ $ QED
Remark $ $ This doubling construction is ancient - already in Euclid. It may be
viewed as a composition of quadratic forms $rm (z^2 + x^2) (1^2 + 1^2):. $
This is a corollary of an old lost theorem of Fibonacci, which has a pretty proof by descent.
Fibonacci's Lost Theorem $ $ The area of an integral
pythagorean triangle is not a perfect square.
A square arithmetic progression (SAP) is an AP $rm x^2, y^2, z^2 $ with a square stepsize $rm, s^2,, $ viz. $$rm x^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} y^2 xrightarrow{Large s^2} z^2$$
Naturally associated with every SAP is a "half square triangle",
ie. doubling $rm z^2 + x^2 $ produces a triangle of square area $rm s^2,, $ viz.
$rm (z + x)^2 + (z - x)^2, = 2 (z^2 + x^2) = 4 y^2 $
which indeed has $ $ area $rm, = (z + x) (z - x)/2 = (z^2 - x^2)/2 = s^2 $
With these concepts in mind, the proof is very easy:
If there exists a pythagorean triangle with square area then it
may be primitivized and its area remains square. Let its primitive
parametrization be $rm:(a,b):$ and let its area be $rm:c^2,:$ namely
$$rm frac{1}2 leg_1 leg_2, = frac{1}2 (2:a:b) (a^2-b^2) = (a!-!b) a (a!+!b) b = c^2 $$
Since $rm:a:$ and $rm:b:$ are coprime of opposite parity, $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b, b $ are coprime factors of a square, thus all must be squares.
Hence $rm a!-!b, a, a!+!b $ form a SAP; doubling its half square triangle
yields a triangle with smaller square area $rm b < c^2, $ hence descent. $ $ QED
Remark $ $ This doubling construction is ancient - already in Euclid. It may be
viewed as a composition of quadratic forms $rm (z^2 + x^2) (1^2 + 1^2):. $
answered May 4 '15 at 16:38
Bill Dubuque
208k29190627
208k29190627
add a comment |
add a comment |
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