a and b associates implies that $exists uin A$ unit such that $a=bu$











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I know that in a domain $A$, $a,bin A$ are associates if and only if there exists a unit $uin A$ such that $a=bu$. But, when A is not a domain, but a general unitary and commutative ring, we can only prove the second implication.



However, I haven't been able to find a counterexample ( a pair a,b in a unitary and commutative ring such that a and b are associates but there is no unit u such that $a=bu$). Of course, as I was told the biconditional was only true in domains, I tried looking at rings $mathbb{Z}_n$ with n no prime. But, the double implication seems to hold for all of them.



My question are:



1)Is it true the double implication in every $mathbb{Z}_n$? Does it hold for any principal ideal ring? If the answer is yes, how can I prove it?



2)Can you give a counterexample for the double implication?










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  • See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
    – J.-E. Pin
    Nov 15 at 18:15












  • Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 18:26












  • I got it thank you
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 19:00















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I know that in a domain $A$, $a,bin A$ are associates if and only if there exists a unit $uin A$ such that $a=bu$. But, when A is not a domain, but a general unitary and commutative ring, we can only prove the second implication.



However, I haven't been able to find a counterexample ( a pair a,b in a unitary and commutative ring such that a and b are associates but there is no unit u such that $a=bu$). Of course, as I was told the biconditional was only true in domains, I tried looking at rings $mathbb{Z}_n$ with n no prime. But, the double implication seems to hold for all of them.



My question are:



1)Is it true the double implication in every $mathbb{Z}_n$? Does it hold for any principal ideal ring? If the answer is yes, how can I prove it?



2)Can you give a counterexample for the double implication?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
    – J.-E. Pin
    Nov 15 at 18:15












  • Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 18:26












  • I got it thank you
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 19:00













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I know that in a domain $A$, $a,bin A$ are associates if and only if there exists a unit $uin A$ such that $a=bu$. But, when A is not a domain, but a general unitary and commutative ring, we can only prove the second implication.



However, I haven't been able to find a counterexample ( a pair a,b in a unitary and commutative ring such that a and b are associates but there is no unit u such that $a=bu$). Of course, as I was told the biconditional was only true in domains, I tried looking at rings $mathbb{Z}_n$ with n no prime. But, the double implication seems to hold for all of them.



My question are:



1)Is it true the double implication in every $mathbb{Z}_n$? Does it hold for any principal ideal ring? If the answer is yes, how can I prove it?



2)Can you give a counterexample for the double implication?










share|cite|improve this question















I know that in a domain $A$, $a,bin A$ are associates if and only if there exists a unit $uin A$ such that $a=bu$. But, when A is not a domain, but a general unitary and commutative ring, we can only prove the second implication.



However, I haven't been able to find a counterexample ( a pair a,b in a unitary and commutative ring such that a and b are associates but there is no unit u such that $a=bu$). Of course, as I was told the biconditional was only true in domains, I tried looking at rings $mathbb{Z}_n$ with n no prime. But, the double implication seems to hold for all of them.



My question are:



1)Is it true the double implication in every $mathbb{Z}_n$? Does it hold for any principal ideal ring? If the answer is yes, how can I prove it?



2)Can you give a counterexample for the double implication?







abstract-algebra ring-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 15 at 18:19









mvw

31.2k22252




31.2k22252










asked Nov 15 at 18:01









Seven

829




829












  • See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
    – J.-E. Pin
    Nov 15 at 18:15












  • Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 18:26












  • I got it thank you
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 19:00


















  • See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
    – J.-E. Pin
    Nov 15 at 18:15












  • Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 18:26












  • I got it thank you
    – Seven
    Nov 15 at 19:00
















See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
– J.-E. Pin
Nov 15 at 18:15






See this question and this one. For $mathbb{Z}_n$, see this question.
– J.-E. Pin
Nov 15 at 18:15














Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
– Seven
Nov 15 at 18:26






Okay, I see there are counterexamples but they are not trivial. About $mathbb{Z}_n$, I don't see that last topic solve my question
– Seven
Nov 15 at 18:26














I got it thank you
– Seven
Nov 15 at 19:00




I got it thank you
– Seven
Nov 15 at 19:00















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