Prove that if $f$ is nonnegative, measurable and $E_k nearrow E$, then $lim_k int_{E_k} f = int_E f$.











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Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.



Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove



$$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$





Proof. First note that



$$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$



and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)



$$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$



Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT



$$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$



So the proof is complete.





I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have



$$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$



But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.





Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.










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    Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.



    Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove



    $$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$





    Proof. First note that



    $$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$



    and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)



    $$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$



    Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT



    $$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$



    So the proof is complete.





    I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have



    $$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$



    But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.





    Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.










    share|cite|improve this question
























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      Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.



      Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove



      $$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$





      Proof. First note that



      $$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$



      and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)



      $$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$



      Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT



      $$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$



      So the proof is complete.





      I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have



      $$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$



      But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.





      Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.



      Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove



      $$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$





      Proof. First note that



      $$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$



      and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)



      $$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$



      Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT



      $$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$



      So the proof is complete.





      I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have



      $$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$



      But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.





      Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.







      real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure






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      asked Nov 15 at 4:24









      Zduff

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          Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
          $$
          muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
          $$

          This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
          $$
          mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
          $$

          as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
            $$
            muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
            $$

            This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
            $$
            mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
            $$

            as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)






            share|cite|improve this answer

























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              Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
              $$
              muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
              $$

              This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
              $$
              mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
              $$

              as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
                $$
                muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
                $$

                This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
                $$
                mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
                $$

                as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
                $$
                muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
                $$

                This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
                $$
                mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
                $$

                as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 15 at 6:03









                rubikscube09

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