Prove that if $f$ is nonnegative, measurable and $E_k nearrow E$, then $lim_k int_{E_k} f = int_E f$.
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Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.
Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove
$$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$
Proof. First note that
$$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$
and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)
$$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$
Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT
$$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$
So the proof is complete.
I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have
$$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$
But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.
Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.
real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
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Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.
Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove
$$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$
Proof. First note that
$$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$
and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)
$$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$
Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT
$$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$
So the proof is complete.
I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have
$$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$
But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.
Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.
real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
add a comment |
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up vote
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down vote
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Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.
Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove
$$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$
Proof. First note that
$$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$
and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)
$$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$
Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT
$$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$
So the proof is complete.
I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have
$$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$
But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.
Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.
real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
Pleas check my proof of the following assertion.
Let ${E_k}$ be a sequence of measurable sets, and $E_k nearrow E$. Suppose $f(x)$ is nonnegative and measurable on $E$. Prove
$$int_E f(x) , dx = lim_{k to infty} int_{E_k} f(x) , dx$$
Proof. First note that
$$int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) dx$$
and we have (using our hypothesis in the second equality)
$$lim f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) = f(x) lim chi_{E_k}(x) stackrel{tiny{HYP.}}{=} f(x)chi_E(x) tag{?}$$
Furthermore, $left(f(x)chi_{E_k}(x)right)$ is monotone increasing, nonnegative, and measurable (product of two measurable functions). Therefore, by the MCT
$$lim_k int_{E_k} f(x) , dx= lim_k int_E f(x)chi_{E_k}(x) , dx stackrel{tiny{MCT}}= int_E f(x) , dx$$
So the proof is complete.
I took for granted in $(?)$ that $lim chi_{E_k}(x) = chi_E(x)$. So to prove that we need to show that for all $epsilon > 0$, and any $x in E$, there exists and $N$, such that whenever $k > N$ we have
$$ |chi_E(x) - chi_{E_k}(x)| < epsilon$$
But this can be relaxed to almost any $x in E$ for the MCT. So, let $epsilon > 0$ and let $x in E$. The set of $x$ on the boundary of of $E$ has measure zero, since that set has side length zero in at least one dimension (??). If $x$ is in the interior of $E$ we can, by hypothesis, produce an $E_N subset E$ such that $x in E_N = E cap E_N$. Therefore, for all $k > N$ we have $x in E_k$ which means that $chi_E(x) = 1$ and $chi_{E_k}(x) = 1$, which clearly satisfies the inequality above.
Something about that doesn't sit right with me, the (??) part mostly. I was thinking about setting this problem up a different way too.
real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
real-analysis lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure
asked Nov 15 at 4:24
Zduff
1,535819
1,535819
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Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
$$
muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
$$
mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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up vote
0
down vote
Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
$$
muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
$$
mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)
add a comment |
up vote
0
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Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
$$
muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
$$
mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
$$
muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
$$
mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)
Not sure if this answers your question, but we can show that if $E_k uparrow E$ then we have that:
$$
muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{infty}E_kright) = lim_{n to infty} muleft(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
This is done by defining $G_1 = E_1$, $G_2 = E_2 setminus E_1$, $G_3 = E_3 setminus E_2$, etc, with $G_ k = E_k setminus E_{k-1}$. Then, we see that these sets are disjoint, and $bigcup G_k = E = bigcup E_k$. By disjoint additivity, we have:
$$
mu(E) = sum_{k = 1}^infty mu(G_k) = lim_{n to infty} sum_{k = 1}^{n}mu = (G_k) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}G_kright) = lim_{n to infty} mu left(bigcup_{k = 1}^{n}E_kright)
$$
as we needed. Having proven the two sets have the same measure, it follows that the indicator function converges accordingly (in an A.E sense)
answered Nov 15 at 6:03
rubikscube09
994617
994617
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