Pythagorean triple











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  1. Show that neither $1$ not $2$ can appear in any Pythagorean triple, but that every integer $kgeq3$ can appear.


  2. Prove that for each integer $k$ there are only finitely many Pythagorean triple containing $k$.



Help me to prove this...
Thank you.










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    Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
    – Kyky
    Nov 17 at 1:55












  • I have no idea......
    – Nithish Kumar R
    Nov 17 at 1:59










  • If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
    – rafa11111
    Nov 17 at 2:06

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite













  1. Show that neither $1$ not $2$ can appear in any Pythagorean triple, but that every integer $kgeq3$ can appear.


  2. Prove that for each integer $k$ there are only finitely many Pythagorean triple containing $k$.



Help me to prove this...
Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
    – Kyky
    Nov 17 at 1:55












  • I have no idea......
    – Nithish Kumar R
    Nov 17 at 1:59










  • If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
    – rafa11111
    Nov 17 at 2:06















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












  1. Show that neither $1$ not $2$ can appear in any Pythagorean triple, but that every integer $kgeq3$ can appear.


  2. Prove that for each integer $k$ there are only finitely many Pythagorean triple containing $k$.



Help me to prove this...
Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question
















  1. Show that neither $1$ not $2$ can appear in any Pythagorean triple, but that every integer $kgeq3$ can appear.


  2. Prove that for each integer $k$ there are only finitely many Pythagorean triple containing $k$.



Help me to prove this...
Thank you.







number-theory pythagorean-triples






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edited Nov 17 at 1:56









Tianlalu

2,8811935




2,8811935










asked Nov 17 at 1:52









Nithish Kumar R

91




91








  • 1




    Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
    – Kyky
    Nov 17 at 1:55












  • I have no idea......
    – Nithish Kumar R
    Nov 17 at 1:59










  • If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
    – rafa11111
    Nov 17 at 2:06
















  • 1




    Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
    – Kyky
    Nov 17 at 1:55












  • I have no idea......
    – Nithish Kumar R
    Nov 17 at 1:59










  • If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
    – rafa11111
    Nov 17 at 2:06










1




1




Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
– Kyky
Nov 17 at 1:55






Welcome to MSE. Please show any working out you have done. That way, more people will be willing to help you.
– Kyky
Nov 17 at 1:55














I have no idea......
– Nithish Kumar R
Nov 17 at 1:59




I have no idea......
– Nithish Kumar R
Nov 17 at 1:59












If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
– rafa11111
Nov 17 at 2:06






If $1$ appeared in a Pythagorean triple, we would have $c^2-b^2=1$. It means that there should be two consecutive integers that are also perfect squares. Since there are no consecutive squares, $1$ cannot appear in a Pythagorean triple. You can use the same argument with $2$ and, with some modifications, with $3$ and other numbers.
– rafa11111
Nov 17 at 2:06












3 Answers
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$1^2$ and $2^2$ are not sums of two positive integers squares so for any Pythagorean
triple $(x, y, z)$ we must have $z ge 3$.



Now $x^2 < x^2 + 1 < (x + 1)^2$ for any $x in N$, so $x^2 + 1^2$ is not a perfect square which gives $1 in { x, y, z}$. i.e. $x ne 1, y ne 1$, and so $x ge 2, y ge 2$. If $y = 2$, then $x^2 < x^2 +y^2 = x^2 + 4 < (x+ 1)^2$
, since $x ge 2$, and thus $x^2 +y^2$ is not a perfect square, so $y ne 2$. Similarly $x ne 2$. Thus ${x, y, z} ⊆ {3, 4, 5, 6, · · · }$.



Let $k ∈ N, k ge 3$ any. If $k$ is odd, then $k^2 = 2l + 1$ with $l ge 4$ and $l^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$;



if $k$ is even, then $k^2 = 4l$ with $l ge 4$ and $(l − 1)^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$



Thus for any integer $k ge 3$, we have a Pythagorean triple $(x, y, z)$ such that $k ∈ {x, y, z}$






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  • I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
    – rafa11111
    Nov 17 at 2:18


















up vote
0
down vote













Since the formula $a^2+b^2=c^2$ can be changed into $a^2=c^2-b^2$, $a^2$ needs to mean the difference between $2$ squares. You will find that $(a+1)^2-a^2$ is equal to $a^2-2a+1-a^2=2a+1$ and $(a+2)^2-a^2=a^2+4a+4-a^2=4a+4$. The former must be odd and the latter must be even. These are obtained by unpacking the bracket and simplifying. This is the maximum values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ of which $a^2=c^2-b^2$ stand true as if there were any larger then $c^2$ and $b^2$ are fractional. For $1$, the largest values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ is $0^2$ and $1^2$ respectively, but $0^2$ can't be part of a side. Again, $2^2$ is the difference between $0^2$ and $2^2$, but $0^2$ can't be used.



On to the second question. We have already proven that the above formulae show that there is a limit as to the values of $b^2$ and $c^2$, and if there are infinite possible values of $b^2$ and $c^2$ then some of the must be non-integer. So by proof of contradiction for any real integer $k$, there can only be a finite amount of Pythagorean triples.






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    We have $(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2.$



    (1). The sequence $(2^2-1^2, 3^2-2^2, 4^2-3^2,...)$ of differences of successive squares is the sequence $(3,5,7,...)$ of odd numbers $>1$. So if $m $ is odd and $mgeq 3$ then we can find $b$ such that $(b+1)^2-b^2=m.$ That is, $2b+1=m.$ So let $b=(m-1)/2$ and $a=b+1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)+(2ab)^2=m^2+(2ab)^2.$$This does not work for $m=1$ as the member $2ab$ of the triplet would be $0.$



    (2). If $m$ is even and $mgeq 4$, let $a=m/2$ and $b=1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2 =(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2=(a^2-b^2)+m^2.$$This does not work for $m=2$ as the member $a^2-b^2$ of the triplet would be $0$.



    (3). If $x,y,z$ are positive integers with $x^2+y^2=z^2$ then



    (3-i). It is easy to confirm that $1ne zne 2.$



    (3-ii). We have $y<z$ so $ yleq z-1$ so $x^2=z^2-y^2geq z^2-(z-1)^2=2z-1geq 5$, so $x>2.$ Interchanging $x,y$ in this, we also get $y^2geq 5$ so $y>2$.



    BTW. The general formula for ALL Pyth. triplets is ${k(a^2-b^2),,2kab,, k(a^2+b^2)}$ for $a,b,kin Bbb N$ with $a>b$.






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      3 Answers
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      3 Answers
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      up vote
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      down vote













      $1^2$ and $2^2$ are not sums of two positive integers squares so for any Pythagorean
      triple $(x, y, z)$ we must have $z ge 3$.



      Now $x^2 < x^2 + 1 < (x + 1)^2$ for any $x in N$, so $x^2 + 1^2$ is not a perfect square which gives $1 in { x, y, z}$. i.e. $x ne 1, y ne 1$, and so $x ge 2, y ge 2$. If $y = 2$, then $x^2 < x^2 +y^2 = x^2 + 4 < (x+ 1)^2$
      , since $x ge 2$, and thus $x^2 +y^2$ is not a perfect square, so $y ne 2$. Similarly $x ne 2$. Thus ${x, y, z} ⊆ {3, 4, 5, 6, · · · }$.



      Let $k ∈ N, k ge 3$ any. If $k$ is odd, then $k^2 = 2l + 1$ with $l ge 4$ and $l^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$;



      if $k$ is even, then $k^2 = 4l$ with $l ge 4$ and $(l − 1)^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$



      Thus for any integer $k ge 3$, we have a Pythagorean triple $(x, y, z)$ such that $k ∈ {x, y, z}$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
        – rafa11111
        Nov 17 at 2:18















      up vote
      2
      down vote













      $1^2$ and $2^2$ are not sums of two positive integers squares so for any Pythagorean
      triple $(x, y, z)$ we must have $z ge 3$.



      Now $x^2 < x^2 + 1 < (x + 1)^2$ for any $x in N$, so $x^2 + 1^2$ is not a perfect square which gives $1 in { x, y, z}$. i.e. $x ne 1, y ne 1$, and so $x ge 2, y ge 2$. If $y = 2$, then $x^2 < x^2 +y^2 = x^2 + 4 < (x+ 1)^2$
      , since $x ge 2$, and thus $x^2 +y^2$ is not a perfect square, so $y ne 2$. Similarly $x ne 2$. Thus ${x, y, z} ⊆ {3, 4, 5, 6, · · · }$.



      Let $k ∈ N, k ge 3$ any. If $k$ is odd, then $k^2 = 2l + 1$ with $l ge 4$ and $l^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$;



      if $k$ is even, then $k^2 = 4l$ with $l ge 4$ and $(l − 1)^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$



      Thus for any integer $k ge 3$, we have a Pythagorean triple $(x, y, z)$ such that $k ∈ {x, y, z}$






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
        – rafa11111
        Nov 17 at 2:18













      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      $1^2$ and $2^2$ are not sums of two positive integers squares so for any Pythagorean
      triple $(x, y, z)$ we must have $z ge 3$.



      Now $x^2 < x^2 + 1 < (x + 1)^2$ for any $x in N$, so $x^2 + 1^2$ is not a perfect square which gives $1 in { x, y, z}$. i.e. $x ne 1, y ne 1$, and so $x ge 2, y ge 2$. If $y = 2$, then $x^2 < x^2 +y^2 = x^2 + 4 < (x+ 1)^2$
      , since $x ge 2$, and thus $x^2 +y^2$ is not a perfect square, so $y ne 2$. Similarly $x ne 2$. Thus ${x, y, z} ⊆ {3, 4, 5, 6, · · · }$.



      Let $k ∈ N, k ge 3$ any. If $k$ is odd, then $k^2 = 2l + 1$ with $l ge 4$ and $l^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$;



      if $k$ is even, then $k^2 = 4l$ with $l ge 4$ and $(l − 1)^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$



      Thus for any integer $k ge 3$, we have a Pythagorean triple $(x, y, z)$ such that $k ∈ {x, y, z}$






      share|cite|improve this answer












      $1^2$ and $2^2$ are not sums of two positive integers squares so for any Pythagorean
      triple $(x, y, z)$ we must have $z ge 3$.



      Now $x^2 < x^2 + 1 < (x + 1)^2$ for any $x in N$, so $x^2 + 1^2$ is not a perfect square which gives $1 in { x, y, z}$. i.e. $x ne 1, y ne 1$, and so $x ge 2, y ge 2$. If $y = 2$, then $x^2 < x^2 +y^2 = x^2 + 4 < (x+ 1)^2$
      , since $x ge 2$, and thus $x^2 +y^2$ is not a perfect square, so $y ne 2$. Similarly $x ne 2$. Thus ${x, y, z} ⊆ {3, 4, 5, 6, · · · }$.



      Let $k ∈ N, k ge 3$ any. If $k$ is odd, then $k^2 = 2l + 1$ with $l ge 4$ and $l^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$;



      if $k$ is even, then $k^2 = 4l$ with $l ge 4$ and $(l − 1)^2 + k^2 = (l + 1)^2$



      Thus for any integer $k ge 3$, we have a Pythagorean triple $(x, y, z)$ such that $k ∈ {x, y, z}$







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 17 at 2:06









      Key Flex

      7,03931229




      7,03931229












      • I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
        – rafa11111
        Nov 17 at 2:18


















      • I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
        – rafa11111
        Nov 17 at 2:18
















      I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
      – rafa11111
      Nov 17 at 2:18




      I think you mean "are not the difference of two positive integer squares" in the first phrase.
      – rafa11111
      Nov 17 at 2:18










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Since the formula $a^2+b^2=c^2$ can be changed into $a^2=c^2-b^2$, $a^2$ needs to mean the difference between $2$ squares. You will find that $(a+1)^2-a^2$ is equal to $a^2-2a+1-a^2=2a+1$ and $(a+2)^2-a^2=a^2+4a+4-a^2=4a+4$. The former must be odd and the latter must be even. These are obtained by unpacking the bracket and simplifying. This is the maximum values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ of which $a^2=c^2-b^2$ stand true as if there were any larger then $c^2$ and $b^2$ are fractional. For $1$, the largest values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ is $0^2$ and $1^2$ respectively, but $0^2$ can't be part of a side. Again, $2^2$ is the difference between $0^2$ and $2^2$, but $0^2$ can't be used.



      On to the second question. We have already proven that the above formulae show that there is a limit as to the values of $b^2$ and $c^2$, and if there are infinite possible values of $b^2$ and $c^2$ then some of the must be non-integer. So by proof of contradiction for any real integer $k$, there can only be a finite amount of Pythagorean triples.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Since the formula $a^2+b^2=c^2$ can be changed into $a^2=c^2-b^2$, $a^2$ needs to mean the difference between $2$ squares. You will find that $(a+1)^2-a^2$ is equal to $a^2-2a+1-a^2=2a+1$ and $(a+2)^2-a^2=a^2+4a+4-a^2=4a+4$. The former must be odd and the latter must be even. These are obtained by unpacking the bracket and simplifying. This is the maximum values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ of which $a^2=c^2-b^2$ stand true as if there were any larger then $c^2$ and $b^2$ are fractional. For $1$, the largest values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ is $0^2$ and $1^2$ respectively, but $0^2$ can't be part of a side. Again, $2^2$ is the difference between $0^2$ and $2^2$, but $0^2$ can't be used.



        On to the second question. We have already proven that the above formulae show that there is a limit as to the values of $b^2$ and $c^2$, and if there are infinite possible values of $b^2$ and $c^2$ then some of the must be non-integer. So by proof of contradiction for any real integer $k$, there can only be a finite amount of Pythagorean triples.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Since the formula $a^2+b^2=c^2$ can be changed into $a^2=c^2-b^2$, $a^2$ needs to mean the difference between $2$ squares. You will find that $(a+1)^2-a^2$ is equal to $a^2-2a+1-a^2=2a+1$ and $(a+2)^2-a^2=a^2+4a+4-a^2=4a+4$. The former must be odd and the latter must be even. These are obtained by unpacking the bracket and simplifying. This is the maximum values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ of which $a^2=c^2-b^2$ stand true as if there were any larger then $c^2$ and $b^2$ are fractional. For $1$, the largest values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ is $0^2$ and $1^2$ respectively, but $0^2$ can't be part of a side. Again, $2^2$ is the difference between $0^2$ and $2^2$, but $0^2$ can't be used.



          On to the second question. We have already proven that the above formulae show that there is a limit as to the values of $b^2$ and $c^2$, and if there are infinite possible values of $b^2$ and $c^2$ then some of the must be non-integer. So by proof of contradiction for any real integer $k$, there can only be a finite amount of Pythagorean triples.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Since the formula $a^2+b^2=c^2$ can be changed into $a^2=c^2-b^2$, $a^2$ needs to mean the difference between $2$ squares. You will find that $(a+1)^2-a^2$ is equal to $a^2-2a+1-a^2=2a+1$ and $(a+2)^2-a^2=a^2+4a+4-a^2=4a+4$. The former must be odd and the latter must be even. These are obtained by unpacking the bracket and simplifying. This is the maximum values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ of which $a^2=c^2-b^2$ stand true as if there were any larger then $c^2$ and $b^2$ are fractional. For $1$, the largest values of $c^2$ and $b^2$ is $0^2$ and $1^2$ respectively, but $0^2$ can't be part of a side. Again, $2^2$ is the difference between $0^2$ and $2^2$, but $0^2$ can't be used.



          On to the second question. We have already proven that the above formulae show that there is a limit as to the values of $b^2$ and $c^2$, and if there are infinite possible values of $b^2$ and $c^2$ then some of the must be non-integer. So by proof of contradiction for any real integer $k$, there can only be a finite amount of Pythagorean triples.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 17 at 2:14









          Kyky

          418213




          418213






















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              We have $(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2.$



              (1). The sequence $(2^2-1^2, 3^2-2^2, 4^2-3^2,...)$ of differences of successive squares is the sequence $(3,5,7,...)$ of odd numbers $>1$. So if $m $ is odd and $mgeq 3$ then we can find $b$ such that $(b+1)^2-b^2=m.$ That is, $2b+1=m.$ So let $b=(m-1)/2$ and $a=b+1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)+(2ab)^2=m^2+(2ab)^2.$$This does not work for $m=1$ as the member $2ab$ of the triplet would be $0.$



              (2). If $m$ is even and $mgeq 4$, let $a=m/2$ and $b=1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2 =(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2=(a^2-b^2)+m^2.$$This does not work for $m=2$ as the member $a^2-b^2$ of the triplet would be $0$.



              (3). If $x,y,z$ are positive integers with $x^2+y^2=z^2$ then



              (3-i). It is easy to confirm that $1ne zne 2.$



              (3-ii). We have $y<z$ so $ yleq z-1$ so $x^2=z^2-y^2geq z^2-(z-1)^2=2z-1geq 5$, so $x>2.$ Interchanging $x,y$ in this, we also get $y^2geq 5$ so $y>2$.



              BTW. The general formula for ALL Pyth. triplets is ${k(a^2-b^2),,2kab,, k(a^2+b^2)}$ for $a,b,kin Bbb N$ with $a>b$.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                We have $(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2.$



                (1). The sequence $(2^2-1^2, 3^2-2^2, 4^2-3^2,...)$ of differences of successive squares is the sequence $(3,5,7,...)$ of odd numbers $>1$. So if $m $ is odd and $mgeq 3$ then we can find $b$ such that $(b+1)^2-b^2=m.$ That is, $2b+1=m.$ So let $b=(m-1)/2$ and $a=b+1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)+(2ab)^2=m^2+(2ab)^2.$$This does not work for $m=1$ as the member $2ab$ of the triplet would be $0.$



                (2). If $m$ is even and $mgeq 4$, let $a=m/2$ and $b=1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2 =(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2=(a^2-b^2)+m^2.$$This does not work for $m=2$ as the member $a^2-b^2$ of the triplet would be $0$.



                (3). If $x,y,z$ are positive integers with $x^2+y^2=z^2$ then



                (3-i). It is easy to confirm that $1ne zne 2.$



                (3-ii). We have $y<z$ so $ yleq z-1$ so $x^2=z^2-y^2geq z^2-(z-1)^2=2z-1geq 5$, so $x>2.$ Interchanging $x,y$ in this, we also get $y^2geq 5$ so $y>2$.



                BTW. The general formula for ALL Pyth. triplets is ${k(a^2-b^2),,2kab,, k(a^2+b^2)}$ for $a,b,kin Bbb N$ with $a>b$.






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                  We have $(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2.$



                  (1). The sequence $(2^2-1^2, 3^2-2^2, 4^2-3^2,...)$ of differences of successive squares is the sequence $(3,5,7,...)$ of odd numbers $>1$. So if $m $ is odd and $mgeq 3$ then we can find $b$ such that $(b+1)^2-b^2=m.$ That is, $2b+1=m.$ So let $b=(m-1)/2$ and $a=b+1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)+(2ab)^2=m^2+(2ab)^2.$$This does not work for $m=1$ as the member $2ab$ of the triplet would be $0.$



                  (2). If $m$ is even and $mgeq 4$, let $a=m/2$ and $b=1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2 =(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2=(a^2-b^2)+m^2.$$This does not work for $m=2$ as the member $a^2-b^2$ of the triplet would be $0$.



                  (3). If $x,y,z$ are positive integers with $x^2+y^2=z^2$ then



                  (3-i). It is easy to confirm that $1ne zne 2.$



                  (3-ii). We have $y<z$ so $ yleq z-1$ so $x^2=z^2-y^2geq z^2-(z-1)^2=2z-1geq 5$, so $x>2.$ Interchanging $x,y$ in this, we also get $y^2geq 5$ so $y>2$.



                  BTW. The general formula for ALL Pyth. triplets is ${k(a^2-b^2),,2kab,, k(a^2+b^2)}$ for $a,b,kin Bbb N$ with $a>b$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  We have $(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2.$



                  (1). The sequence $(2^2-1^2, 3^2-2^2, 4^2-3^2,...)$ of differences of successive squares is the sequence $(3,5,7,...)$ of odd numbers $>1$. So if $m $ is odd and $mgeq 3$ then we can find $b$ such that $(b+1)^2-b^2=m.$ That is, $2b+1=m.$ So let $b=(m-1)/2$ and $a=b+1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2=(a^2-b^2)+(2ab)^2=m^2+(2ab)^2.$$This does not work for $m=1$ as the member $2ab$ of the triplet would be $0.$



                  (2). If $m$ is even and $mgeq 4$, let $a=m/2$ and $b=1.$ Then we have $$(a^2+b^2)^2 =(a^2-b^2)^2+(2ab)^2=(a^2-b^2)+m^2.$$This does not work for $m=2$ as the member $a^2-b^2$ of the triplet would be $0$.



                  (3). If $x,y,z$ are positive integers with $x^2+y^2=z^2$ then



                  (3-i). It is easy to confirm that $1ne zne 2.$



                  (3-ii). We have $y<z$ so $ yleq z-1$ so $x^2=z^2-y^2geq z^2-(z-1)^2=2z-1geq 5$, so $x>2.$ Interchanging $x,y$ in this, we also get $y^2geq 5$ so $y>2$.



                  BTW. The general formula for ALL Pyth. triplets is ${k(a^2-b^2),,2kab,, k(a^2+b^2)}$ for $a,b,kin Bbb N$ with $a>b$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












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                  answered Nov 17 at 13:38









                  DanielWainfleet

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                  33.7k31647






























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