Did converts (ger tzedek) in ancient Israel own land? [duplicate]
This question already has an answer here:
Tribe of Converts
1 answer
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
marked as duplicate by Yaacov Deane, DonielF, sabbahillel, mbloch, Y e z Apr 8 at 3:18
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
|
show 3 more comments
This question already has an answer here:
Tribe of Converts
1 answer
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
marked as duplicate by Yaacov Deane, DonielF, sabbahillel, mbloch, Y e z Apr 8 at 3:18
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 3 more comments
This question already has an answer here:
Tribe of Converts
1 answer
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
This question already has an answer here:
Tribe of Converts
1 answer
Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.
On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.
My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?
This question already has an answer here:
Tribe of Converts
1 answer
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
history conversion-to-judaism shevatim-12-tribes real-estate yovel
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
edited Apr 4 at 20:43
DonielF
17.1k12690
17.1k12690
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
asked Apr 4 at 19:50
filoxfilox
334
334
marked as duplicate by Yaacov Deane, DonielF, sabbahillel, mbloch, Y e z Apr 8 at 3:18
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Yaacov Deane, DonielF, sabbahillel, mbloch, Y e z Apr 8 at 3:18
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 3 more comments
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
1
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
1
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52
|
show 3 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.
מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.
From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.
(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
answered Apr 4 at 21:01
DonielFDonielF
17.1k12690
17.1k12690
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
See bikkurim 1.4
– kouty
Apr 4 at 22:18
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
@kouty Is a support for what I'm saying, no?
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 22:46
add a comment |
1
Your assumption is unfortunately wrong. The Gerim didn't get a part of the land and the Midrash says that was the reason that Yitro went back to Midyan, after realizing he won't get a piece of the promised land (his descendants got land in Jericho though).
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:35
That brings us to the question I asked (need to search) whether the whole land was divided with no "white areas" or everyone got a square mile but there was plenty of land available without the need of inheriting.
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:37
1
@Al He didn't assume anything about where converts lived. That's exactly what he's asking.
– DonielF
Apr 4 at 20:39
@DonielF Do you mean - could they rent it? Sure why not. Own - no. So what's the question?
– Al Berko
Apr 4 at 20:41
1
@filox Welcome aboard. See this link for the answer to your questions. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/66975/7303
– Yaacov Deane
Apr 4 at 20:52