Lemma relating to alpha equivalence of lambda terms












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From Type Theory and Formal Proof, An Introduction by Rob Nederpelt and Herman Geuvers:



Lemma 1.7.1 Let $M_{1} =_{alpha} N_{1}$ and $M_{2} =_{alpha} N_{2}$. Then also:



(1) $M_{1}N_{1} =_{alpha} M_{2}N_{2}$,



(2) $lambda x . M_{1} =_{alpha} lambda x . M_{2}$,



(3) $M_{1}[x := N_{1}] =_{alpha} M_{2}[x := N_{2}]$.



Why does this hold? There does not seem to be a stated connection between $M_{1}$ and $M_{2}$ or $N_{1}$ and $N_{2}$.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Dec 21 '18 at 3:56










  • $begingroup$
    I see. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – user695931
    Dec 21 '18 at 4:04
















0












$begingroup$


From Type Theory and Formal Proof, An Introduction by Rob Nederpelt and Herman Geuvers:



Lemma 1.7.1 Let $M_{1} =_{alpha} N_{1}$ and $M_{2} =_{alpha} N_{2}$. Then also:



(1) $M_{1}N_{1} =_{alpha} M_{2}N_{2}$,



(2) $lambda x . M_{1} =_{alpha} lambda x . M_{2}$,



(3) $M_{1}[x := N_{1}] =_{alpha} M_{2}[x := N_{2}]$.



Why does this hold? There does not seem to be a stated connection between $M_{1}$ and $M_{2}$ or $N_{1}$ and $N_{2}$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Dec 21 '18 at 3:56










  • $begingroup$
    I see. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – user695931
    Dec 21 '18 at 4:04














0












0








0





$begingroup$


From Type Theory and Formal Proof, An Introduction by Rob Nederpelt and Herman Geuvers:



Lemma 1.7.1 Let $M_{1} =_{alpha} N_{1}$ and $M_{2} =_{alpha} N_{2}$. Then also:



(1) $M_{1}N_{1} =_{alpha} M_{2}N_{2}$,



(2) $lambda x . M_{1} =_{alpha} lambda x . M_{2}$,



(3) $M_{1}[x := N_{1}] =_{alpha} M_{2}[x := N_{2}]$.



Why does this hold? There does not seem to be a stated connection between $M_{1}$ and $M_{2}$ or $N_{1}$ and $N_{2}$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




From Type Theory and Formal Proof, An Introduction by Rob Nederpelt and Herman Geuvers:



Lemma 1.7.1 Let $M_{1} =_{alpha} N_{1}$ and $M_{2} =_{alpha} N_{2}$. Then also:



(1) $M_{1}N_{1} =_{alpha} M_{2}N_{2}$,



(2) $lambda x . M_{1} =_{alpha} lambda x . M_{2}$,



(3) $M_{1}[x := N_{1}] =_{alpha} M_{2}[x := N_{2}]$.



Why does this hold? There does not seem to be a stated connection between $M_{1}$ and $M_{2}$ or $N_{1}$ and $N_{2}$.







lambda-calculus






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asked Dec 21 '18 at 2:31









user695931user695931

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17511








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Dec 21 '18 at 3:56










  • $begingroup$
    I see. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – user695931
    Dec 21 '18 at 4:04














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Taroccoesbrocco
    Dec 21 '18 at 3:56










  • $begingroup$
    I see. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – user695931
    Dec 21 '18 at 4:04








1




1




$begingroup$
It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
$endgroup$
– Taroccoesbrocco
Dec 21 '18 at 3:56




$begingroup$
It is just a typo. The hypothesis of lemma 1.7.1 should be $M_1 =_alpha M_2$ and $N_1 =_alpha N_2$.
$endgroup$
– Taroccoesbrocco
Dec 21 '18 at 3:56












$begingroup$
I see. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– user695931
Dec 21 '18 at 4:04




$begingroup$
I see. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– user695931
Dec 21 '18 at 4:04










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