Maximum for Fourier transform results in an error
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assume for a function $varphi in L^1$, that $varphi geq 0$ and $int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1$. Then the following should hold:
$$|hat{varphi}(omega)| leq int_mathbb{R} |varphi(x)||e^{-ixomega}|dx =int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1 = hat{varphi}(0)
$$
which means, that $hat{varphi}$ has a maximum at $omega =0$.
Therefore
$$
|0|=|hat{varphi}'(0)| = |int_mathbb{R}xvarphi(x) dx |
$$
Now assume $varphi(x)= begin{cases}1 & x in [0,1],\
0 & otherwise
end{cases}$ which means all assumptions are fullfiled.
But now $|hat{varphi}'(0)| = frac{1}{2}$
Where is my error?
Thanks for any help
Matthias
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
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up vote
1
down vote
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assume for a function $varphi in L^1$, that $varphi geq 0$ and $int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1$. Then the following should hold:
$$|hat{varphi}(omega)| leq int_mathbb{R} |varphi(x)||e^{-ixomega}|dx =int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1 = hat{varphi}(0)
$$
which means, that $hat{varphi}$ has a maximum at $omega =0$.
Therefore
$$
|0|=|hat{varphi}'(0)| = |int_mathbb{R}xvarphi(x) dx |
$$
Now assume $varphi(x)= begin{cases}1 & x in [0,1],\
0 & otherwise
end{cases}$ which means all assumptions are fullfiled.
But now $|hat{varphi}'(0)| = frac{1}{2}$
Where is my error?
Thanks for any help
Matthias
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
2
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
assume for a function $varphi in L^1$, that $varphi geq 0$ and $int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1$. Then the following should hold:
$$|hat{varphi}(omega)| leq int_mathbb{R} |varphi(x)||e^{-ixomega}|dx =int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1 = hat{varphi}(0)
$$
which means, that $hat{varphi}$ has a maximum at $omega =0$.
Therefore
$$
|0|=|hat{varphi}'(0)| = |int_mathbb{R}xvarphi(x) dx |
$$
Now assume $varphi(x)= begin{cases}1 & x in [0,1],\
0 & otherwise
end{cases}$ which means all assumptions are fullfiled.
But now $|hat{varphi}'(0)| = frac{1}{2}$
Where is my error?
Thanks for any help
Matthias
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
assume for a function $varphi in L^1$, that $varphi geq 0$ and $int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1$. Then the following should hold:
$$|hat{varphi}(omega)| leq int_mathbb{R} |varphi(x)||e^{-ixomega}|dx =int_mathbb{R}varphi(x) dx = 1 = hat{varphi}(0)
$$
which means, that $hat{varphi}$ has a maximum at $omega =0$.
Therefore
$$
|0|=|hat{varphi}'(0)| = |int_mathbb{R}xvarphi(x) dx |
$$
Now assume $varphi(x)= begin{cases}1 & x in [0,1],\
0 & otherwise
end{cases}$ which means all assumptions are fullfiled.
But now $|hat{varphi}'(0)| = frac{1}{2}$
Where is my error?
Thanks for any help
Matthias
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
fourier-analysis fourier-transform
edited Nov 15 at 21:01
Bernard
116k637108
116k637108
asked Nov 15 at 20:36
Matthias Lauber
162
162
2
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09
add a comment |
2
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09
2
2
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09
add a comment |
1 Answer
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It is $|hatvarphi$| that attains its maximum at $omega=0$, not $hatvarphi$. In fact, since $varphi$ is complex valued, it does not make sense to talk about its maximum.
$$
varphi(omega)=frac{1-e^{-iomega}}{i,omega}
$$
and
$$
|varphi(omega)|^2=frac{2(1-cosomega)}{omega^2}=1-frac{omega^2}{12}+dots
$$
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
It is $|hatvarphi$| that attains its maximum at $omega=0$, not $hatvarphi$. In fact, since $varphi$ is complex valued, it does not make sense to talk about its maximum.
$$
varphi(omega)=frac{1-e^{-iomega}}{i,omega}
$$
and
$$
|varphi(omega)|^2=frac{2(1-cosomega)}{omega^2}=1-frac{omega^2}{12}+dots
$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
It is $|hatvarphi$| that attains its maximum at $omega=0$, not $hatvarphi$. In fact, since $varphi$ is complex valued, it does not make sense to talk about its maximum.
$$
varphi(omega)=frac{1-e^{-iomega}}{i,omega}
$$
and
$$
|varphi(omega)|^2=frac{2(1-cosomega)}{omega^2}=1-frac{omega^2}{12}+dots
$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
It is $|hatvarphi$| that attains its maximum at $omega=0$, not $hatvarphi$. In fact, since $varphi$ is complex valued, it does not make sense to talk about its maximum.
$$
varphi(omega)=frac{1-e^{-iomega}}{i,omega}
$$
and
$$
|varphi(omega)|^2=frac{2(1-cosomega)}{omega^2}=1-frac{omega^2}{12}+dots
$$
It is $|hatvarphi$| that attains its maximum at $omega=0$, not $hatvarphi$. In fact, since $varphi$ is complex valued, it does not make sense to talk about its maximum.
$$
varphi(omega)=frac{1-e^{-iomega}}{i,omega}
$$
and
$$
|varphi(omega)|^2=frac{2(1-cosomega)}{omega^2}=1-frac{omega^2}{12}+dots
$$
answered Nov 26 at 17:04
Julián Aguirre
66.9k23994
66.9k23994
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
You're forgetting that $hat phi$ is complex valued.
– ε-δ
Nov 15 at 22:09