Probability Problem of 2i offensive-defensive players











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Question: A football team consists of 20 offensive and 20 defensive players. The players are to be paired in groups of 2 for the purpose of determining roommates. What is the probability that there are 2i offensive–defensive roommate pairs, i = 1,2,...,10?



20 Offensive (O), 20 Defensive (D) ==> 40 people total and 20 pairs



The question asks for the probability of 2i OD pairs. If we have 2i OD pairs, then we have (20−2i) OO and DD pairs. So I think the solution will be of form:



$frac{(mbox{total OD pair combinations}) cdot (mbox{total OO Comb)(total DD comb})}{mbox{total unordered pair combinations} }$



Therefore, the answer will be:



$cfrac{binom{20}{2i}^2(2i)! left[ cfrac{(20-2i)!}{2^{10-i}(10-i)!} right]^2} {cfrac{40!}{2^{20}20! }} i=0,1,...,10$



My question is, when i=10, the numerator should be logically $(20!)$
But here the second part of the numerator becomes $cfrac{0}{0}$. So I can't proceed further.



Please help me to solve this problem. Thanks in advance.










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  • 3




    use that $0!=1$
    – Vasya
    Nov 15 at 15:49















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
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Question: A football team consists of 20 offensive and 20 defensive players. The players are to be paired in groups of 2 for the purpose of determining roommates. What is the probability that there are 2i offensive–defensive roommate pairs, i = 1,2,...,10?



20 Offensive (O), 20 Defensive (D) ==> 40 people total and 20 pairs



The question asks for the probability of 2i OD pairs. If we have 2i OD pairs, then we have (20−2i) OO and DD pairs. So I think the solution will be of form:



$frac{(mbox{total OD pair combinations}) cdot (mbox{total OO Comb)(total DD comb})}{mbox{total unordered pair combinations} }$



Therefore, the answer will be:



$cfrac{binom{20}{2i}^2(2i)! left[ cfrac{(20-2i)!}{2^{10-i}(10-i)!} right]^2} {cfrac{40!}{2^{20}20! }} i=0,1,...,10$



My question is, when i=10, the numerator should be logically $(20!)$
But here the second part of the numerator becomes $cfrac{0}{0}$. So I can't proceed further.



Please help me to solve this problem. Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 3




    use that $0!=1$
    – Vasya
    Nov 15 at 15:49













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





Question: A football team consists of 20 offensive and 20 defensive players. The players are to be paired in groups of 2 for the purpose of determining roommates. What is the probability that there are 2i offensive–defensive roommate pairs, i = 1,2,...,10?



20 Offensive (O), 20 Defensive (D) ==> 40 people total and 20 pairs



The question asks for the probability of 2i OD pairs. If we have 2i OD pairs, then we have (20−2i) OO and DD pairs. So I think the solution will be of form:



$frac{(mbox{total OD pair combinations}) cdot (mbox{total OO Comb)(total DD comb})}{mbox{total unordered pair combinations} }$



Therefore, the answer will be:



$cfrac{binom{20}{2i}^2(2i)! left[ cfrac{(20-2i)!}{2^{10-i}(10-i)!} right]^2} {cfrac{40!}{2^{20}20! }} i=0,1,...,10$



My question is, when i=10, the numerator should be logically $(20!)$
But here the second part of the numerator becomes $cfrac{0}{0}$. So I can't proceed further.



Please help me to solve this problem. Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question













Question: A football team consists of 20 offensive and 20 defensive players. The players are to be paired in groups of 2 for the purpose of determining roommates. What is the probability that there are 2i offensive–defensive roommate pairs, i = 1,2,...,10?



20 Offensive (O), 20 Defensive (D) ==> 40 people total and 20 pairs



The question asks for the probability of 2i OD pairs. If we have 2i OD pairs, then we have (20−2i) OO and DD pairs. So I think the solution will be of form:



$frac{(mbox{total OD pair combinations}) cdot (mbox{total OO Comb)(total DD comb})}{mbox{total unordered pair combinations} }$



Therefore, the answer will be:



$cfrac{binom{20}{2i}^2(2i)! left[ cfrac{(20-2i)!}{2^{10-i}(10-i)!} right]^2} {cfrac{40!}{2^{20}20! }} i=0,1,...,10$



My question is, when i=10, the numerator should be logically $(20!)$
But here the second part of the numerator becomes $cfrac{0}{0}$. So I can't proceed further.



Please help me to solve this problem. Thanks in advance.







probability combinatorics






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asked Nov 15 at 15:42









user587389

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  • 3




    use that $0!=1$
    – Vasya
    Nov 15 at 15:49














  • 3




    use that $0!=1$
    – Vasya
    Nov 15 at 15:49








3




3




use that $0!=1$
– Vasya
Nov 15 at 15:49




use that $0!=1$
– Vasya
Nov 15 at 15:49















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