Value of operator norm when $mathcal{T}f(x)=int^{x}_{0} f(t)dt$











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Let $mathcal{C}$ be the space of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ equipped with the norm $|f|=int^{1}_{0}|f(t)|dt$. Define a linear map $mathcal{T}:mathcal{C}rightarrow mathcal{C}$ by
$$ mathcal{T}f(x)=int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt. $$
Show that $mathcal{T}$ is well-defined and bounded and determine the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$.





I proved the first two parts myself, but I am having trouble with determining the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$. I was able to show that it is bounded by $1$ though. Observe that



$$|mathcal{T}f|=int^{1}_{0}left|int^{x}_{0}f(t)dtright|dxleq int^{1}_{0}|f|dx = |f| $$
Therefore,



$$ |mathcal{T}|_{text{op}} = underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|mathcal{T}f|}{|f|}leq underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|f|}{|f|}=1 $$



I tried seeing if I could then construct a function where the operator equals $1$, but I've had no success. Anybody have any solutions or hints? Any help is appreciated.










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  • 2




    Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
    – Joe Man Analysis
    Nov 14 at 2:21










  • see volterra integral operator
    – qbert
    Nov 14 at 3:08








  • 1




    Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
    – Shalop
    Nov 14 at 3:17










  • @Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
    – md2perpe
    2 days ago










  • @md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
    – Shalop
    2 days ago

















up vote
7
down vote

favorite
6












Let $mathcal{C}$ be the space of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ equipped with the norm $|f|=int^{1}_{0}|f(t)|dt$. Define a linear map $mathcal{T}:mathcal{C}rightarrow mathcal{C}$ by
$$ mathcal{T}f(x)=int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt. $$
Show that $mathcal{T}$ is well-defined and bounded and determine the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$.





I proved the first two parts myself, but I am having trouble with determining the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$. I was able to show that it is bounded by $1$ though. Observe that



$$|mathcal{T}f|=int^{1}_{0}left|int^{x}_{0}f(t)dtright|dxleq int^{1}_{0}|f|dx = |f| $$
Therefore,



$$ |mathcal{T}|_{text{op}} = underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|mathcal{T}f|}{|f|}leq underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|f|}{|f|}=1 $$



I tried seeing if I could then construct a function where the operator equals $1$, but I've had no success. Anybody have any solutions or hints? Any help is appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
    – Joe Man Analysis
    Nov 14 at 2:21










  • see volterra integral operator
    – qbert
    Nov 14 at 3:08








  • 1




    Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
    – Shalop
    Nov 14 at 3:17










  • @Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
    – md2perpe
    2 days ago










  • @md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
    – Shalop
    2 days ago















up vote
7
down vote

favorite
6









up vote
7
down vote

favorite
6






6





Let $mathcal{C}$ be the space of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ equipped with the norm $|f|=int^{1}_{0}|f(t)|dt$. Define a linear map $mathcal{T}:mathcal{C}rightarrow mathcal{C}$ by
$$ mathcal{T}f(x)=int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt. $$
Show that $mathcal{T}$ is well-defined and bounded and determine the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$.





I proved the first two parts myself, but I am having trouble with determining the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$. I was able to show that it is bounded by $1$ though. Observe that



$$|mathcal{T}f|=int^{1}_{0}left|int^{x}_{0}f(t)dtright|dxleq int^{1}_{0}|f|dx = |f| $$
Therefore,



$$ |mathcal{T}|_{text{op}} = underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|mathcal{T}f|}{|f|}leq underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|f|}{|f|}=1 $$



I tried seeing if I could then construct a function where the operator equals $1$, but I've had no success. Anybody have any solutions or hints? Any help is appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $mathcal{C}$ be the space of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ equipped with the norm $|f|=int^{1}_{0}|f(t)|dt$. Define a linear map $mathcal{T}:mathcal{C}rightarrow mathcal{C}$ by
$$ mathcal{T}f(x)=int^{x}_{0}f(t)dt. $$
Show that $mathcal{T}$ is well-defined and bounded and determine the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$.





I proved the first two parts myself, but I am having trouble with determining the value of $|mathcal{T}|_{text{op}}$. I was able to show that it is bounded by $1$ though. Observe that



$$|mathcal{T}f|=int^{1}_{0}left|int^{x}_{0}f(t)dtright|dxleq int^{1}_{0}|f|dx = |f| $$
Therefore,



$$ |mathcal{T}|_{text{op}} = underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|mathcal{T}f|}{|f|}leq underset{|f|=1}{sup}frac{|f|}{|f|}=1 $$



I tried seeing if I could then construct a function where the operator equals $1$, but I've had no success. Anybody have any solutions or hints? Any help is appreciated.







real-analysis functional-analysis operator-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 14 at 2:36









Jimmy R.

32.7k42156




32.7k42156










asked Nov 14 at 2:06









Joe Man Analysis

23319




23319








  • 2




    Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
    – Joe Man Analysis
    Nov 14 at 2:21










  • see volterra integral operator
    – qbert
    Nov 14 at 3:08








  • 1




    Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
    – Shalop
    Nov 14 at 3:17










  • @Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
    – md2perpe
    2 days ago










  • @md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
    – Shalop
    2 days ago
















  • 2




    Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
    – Joe Man Analysis
    Nov 14 at 2:21










  • see volterra integral operator
    – qbert
    Nov 14 at 3:08








  • 1




    Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
    – Shalop
    Nov 14 at 3:17










  • @Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
    – md2perpe
    2 days ago










  • @md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
    – Shalop
    2 days ago










2




2




Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
– Joe Man Analysis
Nov 14 at 2:21




Sorry, had to make another edit due to a typo...
– Joe Man Analysis
Nov 14 at 2:21












see volterra integral operator
– qbert
Nov 14 at 3:08






see volterra integral operator
– qbert
Nov 14 at 3:08






1




1




Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
– Shalop
Nov 14 at 3:17




Maybe, take $f_n=1_{[0,1/n]}$. Compute the norm of $f_n$ and of $Tf_n$.
– Shalop
Nov 14 at 3:17












@Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
– md2perpe
2 days ago




@Shalop. That's not a sequence of continuous functions.
– md2perpe
2 days ago












@md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
– Shalop
2 days ago






@md2perpe fine. Then take $f_n(x)=max{1-nx,0}$ I suppose. And $(1-x)^n$ probably works too. It’s a bit silly since continuous functions are dense in L^1 anyways, so it doesn’t matter much.
– Shalop
2 days ago












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










For $nin Bbb N:$ Let $K_n=frac {1}{n+1}+frac {1}{(n+1)^2}.$ Let $f_n(x)=n+1$ for $xin [0,frac {1}{n+1}].$ Let $f_n(x)=0$ for $xin [K_n,1].$ Let $f_n(x)$ be linear for $xin [frac {1}{n+1},K_n].$



We have $|f_n|=1+frac {1}{2(n+1)}.$



For $xin [frac {1}{n+1},1]$ we have $(Tf_n)(x)geq (Tf_n)(frac {1}{n+1})=1.$ $$text {So }quad |Tf_n|geq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 (Tf_n)(x)dxgeq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 1cdot dx=$$ $$=1-frac {1}{n+1}.$$



$$text {So} quad frac {|Tf_n|}{|f_n|}geq frac {1-frac {1}{n+1}}{ 1+frac {1}{2(n+1) }}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    It might be hard (or impossible) to find a function for which $ ||mathcal{T}f||$ is exactly equal to $||f||$, but you only need to find a sequence of functions $f_n$, such that $$frac{||mathcal{T}f_n||}{||f_n||} to 1quad text{as } n to infty.$$



    Note that you do not need the limit of the $f_n$ to be a continuous function!



    You should try to construct one such sequence using elementary functions. Try to write down a few examples with some free parameters, and see if you can cook up such a sequence!






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
      – DanielWainfleet
      2 days ago










    • Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
      – Angelo Lucia
      2 days ago












    • Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
      – Shalop
      2 days ago










    • You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
      – Angelo Lucia
      2 days ago










    • In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
      – DanielWainfleet
      yesterday











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    4
    down vote



    accepted










    For $nin Bbb N:$ Let $K_n=frac {1}{n+1}+frac {1}{(n+1)^2}.$ Let $f_n(x)=n+1$ for $xin [0,frac {1}{n+1}].$ Let $f_n(x)=0$ for $xin [K_n,1].$ Let $f_n(x)$ be linear for $xin [frac {1}{n+1},K_n].$



    We have $|f_n|=1+frac {1}{2(n+1)}.$



    For $xin [frac {1}{n+1},1]$ we have $(Tf_n)(x)geq (Tf_n)(frac {1}{n+1})=1.$ $$text {So }quad |Tf_n|geq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 (Tf_n)(x)dxgeq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 1cdot dx=$$ $$=1-frac {1}{n+1}.$$



    $$text {So} quad frac {|Tf_n|}{|f_n|}geq frac {1-frac {1}{n+1}}{ 1+frac {1}{2(n+1) }}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      4
      down vote



      accepted










      For $nin Bbb N:$ Let $K_n=frac {1}{n+1}+frac {1}{(n+1)^2}.$ Let $f_n(x)=n+1$ for $xin [0,frac {1}{n+1}].$ Let $f_n(x)=0$ for $xin [K_n,1].$ Let $f_n(x)$ be linear for $xin [frac {1}{n+1},K_n].$



      We have $|f_n|=1+frac {1}{2(n+1)}.$



      For $xin [frac {1}{n+1},1]$ we have $(Tf_n)(x)geq (Tf_n)(frac {1}{n+1})=1.$ $$text {So }quad |Tf_n|geq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 (Tf_n)(x)dxgeq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 1cdot dx=$$ $$=1-frac {1}{n+1}.$$



      $$text {So} quad frac {|Tf_n|}{|f_n|}geq frac {1-frac {1}{n+1}}{ 1+frac {1}{2(n+1) }}.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        4
        down vote



        accepted






        For $nin Bbb N:$ Let $K_n=frac {1}{n+1}+frac {1}{(n+1)^2}.$ Let $f_n(x)=n+1$ for $xin [0,frac {1}{n+1}].$ Let $f_n(x)=0$ for $xin [K_n,1].$ Let $f_n(x)$ be linear for $xin [frac {1}{n+1},K_n].$



        We have $|f_n|=1+frac {1}{2(n+1)}.$



        For $xin [frac {1}{n+1},1]$ we have $(Tf_n)(x)geq (Tf_n)(frac {1}{n+1})=1.$ $$text {So }quad |Tf_n|geq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 (Tf_n)(x)dxgeq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 1cdot dx=$$ $$=1-frac {1}{n+1}.$$



        $$text {So} quad frac {|Tf_n|}{|f_n|}geq frac {1-frac {1}{n+1}}{ 1+frac {1}{2(n+1) }}.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        For $nin Bbb N:$ Let $K_n=frac {1}{n+1}+frac {1}{(n+1)^2}.$ Let $f_n(x)=n+1$ for $xin [0,frac {1}{n+1}].$ Let $f_n(x)=0$ for $xin [K_n,1].$ Let $f_n(x)$ be linear for $xin [frac {1}{n+1},K_n].$



        We have $|f_n|=1+frac {1}{2(n+1)}.$



        For $xin [frac {1}{n+1},1]$ we have $(Tf_n)(x)geq (Tf_n)(frac {1}{n+1})=1.$ $$text {So }quad |Tf_n|geq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 (Tf_n)(x)dxgeq int_{1/(n+1)}^1 1cdot dx=$$ $$=1-frac {1}{n+1}.$$



        $$text {So} quad frac {|Tf_n|}{|f_n|}geq frac {1-frac {1}{n+1}}{ 1+frac {1}{2(n+1) }}.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 2 days ago

























        answered 2 days ago









        DanielWainfleet

        33.3k31647




        33.3k31647






















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            It might be hard (or impossible) to find a function for which $ ||mathcal{T}f||$ is exactly equal to $||f||$, but you only need to find a sequence of functions $f_n$, such that $$frac{||mathcal{T}f_n||}{||f_n||} to 1quad text{as } n to infty.$$



            Note that you do not need the limit of the $f_n$ to be a continuous function!



            You should try to construct one such sequence using elementary functions. Try to write down a few examples with some free parameters, and see if you can cook up such a sequence!






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
              – DanielWainfleet
              2 days ago










            • Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago












            • Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
              – Shalop
              2 days ago










            • You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago










            • In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
              – DanielWainfleet
              yesterday















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            It might be hard (or impossible) to find a function for which $ ||mathcal{T}f||$ is exactly equal to $||f||$, but you only need to find a sequence of functions $f_n$, such that $$frac{||mathcal{T}f_n||}{||f_n||} to 1quad text{as } n to infty.$$



            Note that you do not need the limit of the $f_n$ to be a continuous function!



            You should try to construct one such sequence using elementary functions. Try to write down a few examples with some free parameters, and see if you can cook up such a sequence!






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
              – DanielWainfleet
              2 days ago










            • Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago












            • Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
              – Shalop
              2 days ago










            • You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago










            • In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
              – DanielWainfleet
              yesterday













            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            It might be hard (or impossible) to find a function for which $ ||mathcal{T}f||$ is exactly equal to $||f||$, but you only need to find a sequence of functions $f_n$, such that $$frac{||mathcal{T}f_n||}{||f_n||} to 1quad text{as } n to infty.$$



            Note that you do not need the limit of the $f_n$ to be a continuous function!



            You should try to construct one such sequence using elementary functions. Try to write down a few examples with some free parameters, and see if you can cook up such a sequence!






            share|cite|improve this answer














            It might be hard (or impossible) to find a function for which $ ||mathcal{T}f||$ is exactly equal to $||f||$, but you only need to find a sequence of functions $f_n$, such that $$frac{||mathcal{T}f_n||}{||f_n||} to 1quad text{as } n to infty.$$



            Note that you do not need the limit of the $f_n$ to be a continuous function!



            You should try to construct one such sequence using elementary functions. Try to write down a few examples with some free parameters, and see if you can cook up such a sequence!







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 2 days ago

























            answered Nov 14 at 3:04









            Angelo Lucia

            558213




            558213












            • I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
              – DanielWainfleet
              2 days ago










            • Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago












            • Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
              – Shalop
              2 days ago










            • You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago










            • In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
              – DanielWainfleet
              yesterday


















            • I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
              – DanielWainfleet
              2 days ago










            • Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago












            • Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
              – Shalop
              2 days ago










            • You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
              – Angelo Lucia
              2 days ago










            • In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
              – DanielWainfleet
              yesterday
















            I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
            – DanielWainfleet
            2 days ago




            I feel sure that $|Tf|< |f| $ when $fne 0,$ which is not unusual in infinite-dimensional spaces, but I haven't verified it
            – DanielWainfleet
            2 days ago












            Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
            – Angelo Lucia
            2 days ago






            Yes, but that does not mean that $||mathcal{T}f||$ could not be arbitrarily close to $||f||$ (which would imply $||mathcal{T}||_{op}=1$).
            – Angelo Lucia
            2 days ago














            Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
            – Shalop
            2 days ago




            Seems like your functions aren’t continuous on [0,1]$ but only on $(0,1]$.
            – Shalop
            2 days ago












            You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
            – Angelo Lucia
            2 days ago




            You are right, my mistake. I have removed my example.
            – Angelo Lucia
            2 days ago












            In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
            – DanielWainfleet
            yesterday




            In reply to your reply to my comment: Yes. And the norm of $T$ is $1$
            – DanielWainfleet
            yesterday


















             

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