Can $int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(nx)dx=frac{pi}{n!}$ be extened to non-integers?












2












$begingroup$


It is well known that the fourier series for $e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))$ is $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin(ntheta)}{n!}$ which implies that



$$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(ntheta)dx=frac{pi}{n!}$$ for $n>0$. My question is if this identity can be extended to fractional values such as $$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(frac{theta}{2})dtheta=2sqrt{pi} $$










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
    $endgroup$
    – TheOscillator
    Nov 29 '18 at 15:59












  • $begingroup$
    Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:33












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:43
















2












$begingroup$


It is well known that the fourier series for $e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))$ is $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin(ntheta)}{n!}$ which implies that



$$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(ntheta)dx=frac{pi}{n!}$$ for $n>0$. My question is if this identity can be extended to fractional values such as $$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(frac{theta}{2})dtheta=2sqrt{pi} $$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
    $endgroup$
    – TheOscillator
    Nov 29 '18 at 15:59












  • $begingroup$
    Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:33












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:43














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


It is well known that the fourier series for $e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))$ is $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin(ntheta)}{n!}$ which implies that



$$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(ntheta)dx=frac{pi}{n!}$$ for $n>0$. My question is if this identity can be extended to fractional values such as $$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(frac{theta}{2})dtheta=2sqrt{pi} $$










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




It is well known that the fourier series for $e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))$ is $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin(ntheta)}{n!}$ which implies that



$$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(ntheta)dx=frac{pi}{n!}$$ for $n>0$. My question is if this identity can be extended to fractional values such as $$int_{-pi}^pi e^{cos(theta)}sin(sin(theta))sin(frac{theta}{2})dtheta=2sqrt{pi} $$







definite-integrals fourier-series gamma-function






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asked Nov 29 '18 at 15:50









aledenaleden

2,017511




2,017511












  • $begingroup$
    No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
    $endgroup$
    – TheOscillator
    Nov 29 '18 at 15:59












  • $begingroup$
    Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:33












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:43


















  • $begingroup$
    No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
    $endgroup$
    – TheOscillator
    Nov 29 '18 at 15:59












  • $begingroup$
    Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:33












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 16:43
















$begingroup$
No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
$endgroup$
– TheOscillator
Nov 29 '18 at 15:59






$begingroup$
No! Try expanding with the half-angle formulas
$endgroup$
– TheOscillator
Nov 29 '18 at 15:59














$begingroup$
Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 16:33






$begingroup$
Numerical evidence suggests that $$ int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta} sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta simeq fracpi{n!} - frac34frac{sin((n-1)pi)}{n^2+1}, $$ where of course $n!=Gamma(n+1)$
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 16:33














$begingroup$
Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 16:43




$begingroup$
Sorry, it should be $+tfrac34dots$, not $-$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 16:43










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Incomplete answer: only numerical experiments.



Let me define
$$
s(n) = int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta}sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta
$$

and
$$
g(n) = frac{s(n)-frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)}}{sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}.
$$

Numerical evidence suggests that $g(n)to0$; but how fast? Let's try to extract some more information.



Here I plot $-logbigl(g(n)bigr)$ for $nin[1,20]$:
enter image description here



It looks like a logarithm, so it seems natural to try to fit it with
$$
-logbigl(g(n)bigr) = a+blog(n+c).
$$



By fiddling a bit (and looking at larger ranges of $n$) one can see that $b$ has to be $2$, so we have $a+2log(n+c)$. The value $g(1)$ seems to be around $0.5$, a bit less, so we impose $a+2log(1+b)=log(2)$. Moreover, by looking at large values, we deduce that $a=1-log(2)$ seems a good value. Therefore our approximation is
$$
g(n) simeq frac{2}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2},
$$

which leads to
$$
s(n) simeq frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)} + frac{2sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2} .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – aleden
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:42










  • $begingroup$
    I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:43











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Incomplete answer: only numerical experiments.



Let me define
$$
s(n) = int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta}sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta
$$

and
$$
g(n) = frac{s(n)-frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)}}{sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}.
$$

Numerical evidence suggests that $g(n)to0$; but how fast? Let's try to extract some more information.



Here I plot $-logbigl(g(n)bigr)$ for $nin[1,20]$:
enter image description here



It looks like a logarithm, so it seems natural to try to fit it with
$$
-logbigl(g(n)bigr) = a+blog(n+c).
$$



By fiddling a bit (and looking at larger ranges of $n$) one can see that $b$ has to be $2$, so we have $a+2log(n+c)$. The value $g(1)$ seems to be around $0.5$, a bit less, so we impose $a+2log(1+b)=log(2)$. Moreover, by looking at large values, we deduce that $a=1-log(2)$ seems a good value. Therefore our approximation is
$$
g(n) simeq frac{2}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2},
$$

which leads to
$$
s(n) simeq frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)} + frac{2sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2} .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – aleden
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:42










  • $begingroup$
    I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:43
















2












$begingroup$

Incomplete answer: only numerical experiments.



Let me define
$$
s(n) = int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta}sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta
$$

and
$$
g(n) = frac{s(n)-frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)}}{sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}.
$$

Numerical evidence suggests that $g(n)to0$; but how fast? Let's try to extract some more information.



Here I plot $-logbigl(g(n)bigr)$ for $nin[1,20]$:
enter image description here



It looks like a logarithm, so it seems natural to try to fit it with
$$
-logbigl(g(n)bigr) = a+blog(n+c).
$$



By fiddling a bit (and looking at larger ranges of $n$) one can see that $b$ has to be $2$, so we have $a+2log(n+c)$. The value $g(1)$ seems to be around $0.5$, a bit less, so we impose $a+2log(1+b)=log(2)$. Moreover, by looking at large values, we deduce that $a=1-log(2)$ seems a good value. Therefore our approximation is
$$
g(n) simeq frac{2}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2},
$$

which leads to
$$
s(n) simeq frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)} + frac{2sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2} .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – aleden
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:42










  • $begingroup$
    I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:43














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Incomplete answer: only numerical experiments.



Let me define
$$
s(n) = int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta}sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta
$$

and
$$
g(n) = frac{s(n)-frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)}}{sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}.
$$

Numerical evidence suggests that $g(n)to0$; but how fast? Let's try to extract some more information.



Here I plot $-logbigl(g(n)bigr)$ for $nin[1,20]$:
enter image description here



It looks like a logarithm, so it seems natural to try to fit it with
$$
-logbigl(g(n)bigr) = a+blog(n+c).
$$



By fiddling a bit (and looking at larger ranges of $n$) one can see that $b$ has to be $2$, so we have $a+2log(n+c)$. The value $g(1)$ seems to be around $0.5$, a bit less, so we impose $a+2log(1+b)=log(2)$. Moreover, by looking at large values, we deduce that $a=1-log(2)$ seems a good value. Therefore our approximation is
$$
g(n) simeq frac{2}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2},
$$

which leads to
$$
s(n) simeq frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)} + frac{2sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2} .
$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Incomplete answer: only numerical experiments.



Let me define
$$
s(n) = int_{-pi}^pi e^{costheta}sin(sintheta)sin(ntheta),dtheta
$$

and
$$
g(n) = frac{s(n)-frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)}}{sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}.
$$

Numerical evidence suggests that $g(n)to0$; but how fast? Let's try to extract some more information.



Here I plot $-logbigl(g(n)bigr)$ for $nin[1,20]$:
enter image description here



It looks like a logarithm, so it seems natural to try to fit it with
$$
-logbigl(g(n)bigr) = a+blog(n+c).
$$



By fiddling a bit (and looking at larger ranges of $n$) one can see that $b$ has to be $2$, so we have $a+2log(n+c)$. The value $g(1)$ seems to be around $0.5$, a bit less, so we impose $a+2log(1+b)=log(2)$. Moreover, by looking at large values, we deduce that $a=1-log(2)$ seems a good value. Therefore our approximation is
$$
g(n) simeq frac{2}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2},
$$

which leads to
$$
s(n) simeq frac{pi}{Gamma(n+1)} + frac{2sinbigl((n-1)pibigr)}{bigl(2+sqrt e(n-1)bigr)^2} .
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 29 '18 at 17:35









FedericoFederico

4,899514




4,899514












  • $begingroup$
    I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – aleden
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:42










  • $begingroup$
    I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:43


















  • $begingroup$
    I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
    $endgroup$
    – aleden
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:42










  • $begingroup$
    I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
    $endgroup$
    – Federico
    Nov 29 '18 at 17:43
















$begingroup$
I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
$endgroup$
– aleden
Nov 29 '18 at 17:39




$begingroup$
I see, so at integer value it is equal to $frac{pi}{n!}$ but otherwise it is not.
$endgroup$
– aleden
Nov 29 '18 at 17:39












$begingroup$
Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 17:42




$begingroup$
Yes. Even just at $n=1/2$, we get $s(1/2)=tfrac2e + sqrtpi mathrm{erf}(1)$ instead of $2sqrtpi$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 17:42












$begingroup$
I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 17:43




$begingroup$
I'm still intrigued to find a closed expression for $s(n)$
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 29 '18 at 17:43


















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