Suppose that $f$, $f'$ and $f''$ are positive on $mathbb{R}$ then $lim_{xtoinfty } f(x) = infty$.












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I have been trying to prove this for a quite a long time but I have been unsuccessful so far.



We need to show that for any $M>0$ there exists a $d>0$ such that $f(x)>M$ for all $x>d$ in order to show that $lim_{xtoinfty } f(x) = infty$.



Here's how I try to begin the proof:
Let $M>0$ be given. Let $g(x):=f(x)-M$. We need to show that there is a point $d>0$ such that $g(x)>0$ for all $x>d$. Also we have been given that $g'(x)>0$ and $g''(x)>0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. Thus, it must be that $g$ and $g'$ are strictly increasing.



I'm not sure how to proceed after that. I tried a lot using MVT but I couldn't succeed. Hints would be appreciated.










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have been trying to prove this for a quite a long time but I have been unsuccessful so far.



    We need to show that for any $M>0$ there exists a $d>0$ such that $f(x)>M$ for all $x>d$ in order to show that $lim_{xtoinfty } f(x) = infty$.



    Here's how I try to begin the proof:
    Let $M>0$ be given. Let $g(x):=f(x)-M$. We need to show that there is a point $d>0$ such that $g(x)>0$ for all $x>d$. Also we have been given that $g'(x)>0$ and $g''(x)>0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. Thus, it must be that $g$ and $g'$ are strictly increasing.



    I'm not sure how to proceed after that. I tried a lot using MVT but I couldn't succeed. Hints would be appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      I have been trying to prove this for a quite a long time but I have been unsuccessful so far.



      We need to show that for any $M>0$ there exists a $d>0$ such that $f(x)>M$ for all $x>d$ in order to show that $lim_{xtoinfty } f(x) = infty$.



      Here's how I try to begin the proof:
      Let $M>0$ be given. Let $g(x):=f(x)-M$. We need to show that there is a point $d>0$ such that $g(x)>0$ for all $x>d$. Also we have been given that $g'(x)>0$ and $g''(x)>0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. Thus, it must be that $g$ and $g'$ are strictly increasing.



      I'm not sure how to proceed after that. I tried a lot using MVT but I couldn't succeed. Hints would be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have been trying to prove this for a quite a long time but I have been unsuccessful so far.



      We need to show that for any $M>0$ there exists a $d>0$ such that $f(x)>M$ for all $x>d$ in order to show that $lim_{xtoinfty } f(x) = infty$.



      Here's how I try to begin the proof:
      Let $M>0$ be given. Let $g(x):=f(x)-M$. We need to show that there is a point $d>0$ such that $g(x)>0$ for all $x>d$. Also we have been given that $g'(x)>0$ and $g''(x)>0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. Thus, it must be that $g$ and $g'$ are strictly increasing.



      I'm not sure how to proceed after that. I tried a lot using MVT but I couldn't succeed. Hints would be appreciated.







      real-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 29 '18 at 16:12









      Ashish KAshish K

      831613




      831613






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          The function is positive, increasing and convex.



          For all $x > c$ we have $f(x) > f(c) + f'(c)(x-c)$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
            $endgroup$
            – Ashish K
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:37










          • $begingroup$
            @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:55











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          The function is positive, increasing and convex.



          For all $x > c$ we have $f(x) > f(c) + f'(c)(x-c)$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
            $endgroup$
            – Ashish K
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:37










          • $begingroup$
            @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:55
















          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          The function is positive, increasing and convex.



          For all $x > c$ we have $f(x) > f(c) + f'(c)(x-c)$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
            $endgroup$
            – Ashish K
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:37










          • $begingroup$
            @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:55














          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          The function is positive, increasing and convex.



          For all $x > c$ we have $f(x) > f(c) + f'(c)(x-c)$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Hint:



          The function is positive, increasing and convex.



          For all $x > c$ we have $f(x) > f(c) + f'(c)(x-c)$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 29 '18 at 16:19









          RRLRRL

          49.5k42573




          49.5k42573












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
            $endgroup$
            – Ashish K
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:37










          • $begingroup$
            @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:55


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
            $endgroup$
            – Ashish K
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:37










          • $begingroup$
            @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
            $endgroup$
            – RRL
            Nov 29 '18 at 16:55
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
          $endgroup$
          – Ashish K
          Nov 29 '18 at 16:37




          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the hint. That helped. I completed my proof!
          $endgroup$
          – Ashish K
          Nov 29 '18 at 16:37












          $begingroup$
          @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Nov 29 '18 at 16:55




          $begingroup$
          @AshishK: You're welcome. Good work.
          $endgroup$
          – RRL
          Nov 29 '18 at 16:55


















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