Cardinality of two finite sets












1












$begingroup$


Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



    Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



    My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



    Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



      Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



      My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



      Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



      Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



      My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



      Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?







      discrete-mathematics






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 1 '18 at 23:04









      UnknownWUnknownW

      985822




      985822






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          To save you a lot of headache:



          That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



          If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




          this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




          Nothing more. Nothing less.



          So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



          We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



          If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



          So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



          ... You're welcome.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
              $endgroup$
              – UnknownW
              Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










            • $begingroup$
              Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
              $endgroup$
              – jackson5
              Dec 1 '18 at 23:15



















            0












            $begingroup$

            Two proofs.



            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



              Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



              Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



              Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
              $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



              $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
              $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
              $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
              $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



              Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



              Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













                Your Answer





                StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
                return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
                StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
                StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
                });
                });
                }, "mathjax-editing");

                StackExchange.ready(function() {
                var channelOptions = {
                tags: "".split(" "),
                id: "69"
                };
                initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

                StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
                // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
                if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
                StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
                createEditor();
                });
                }
                else {
                createEditor();
                }
                });

                function createEditor() {
                StackExchange.prepareEditor({
                heartbeatType: 'answer',
                autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
                convertImagesToLinks: true,
                noModals: true,
                showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
                reputationToPostImages: 10,
                bindNavPrevention: true,
                postfix: "",
                imageUploader: {
                brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
                contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
                allowUrls: true
                },
                noCode: true, onDemand: true,
                discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
                ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
                });


                }
                });














                draft saved

                draft discarded


















                StackExchange.ready(
                function () {
                StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3021953%2fcardinality-of-two-finite-sets%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                }
                );

                Post as a guest















                Required, but never shown

























                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                1












                $begingroup$

                To save you a lot of headache:



                That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                Nothing more. Nothing less.



                So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                ... You're welcome.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  To save you a lot of headache:



                  That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                  If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                  this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                  Nothing more. Nothing less.



                  So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                  We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                  If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                  So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                  ... You're welcome.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    To save you a lot of headache:



                    That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                    If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                    this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                    Nothing more. Nothing less.



                    So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                    We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                    If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                    So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                    ... You're welcome.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    To save you a lot of headache:



                    That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                    If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                    this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                    Nothing more. Nothing less.



                    So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                    We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                    If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                    So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                    ... You're welcome.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 2 '18 at 0:03









                    fleabloodfleablood

                    69.3k22685




                    69.3k22685























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15














                        0












                        0








                        0





                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:10









                        jackson5jackson5

                        606512




                        606512












                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15


















                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
















                        $begingroup$
                        Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                        $endgroup$
                        – UnknownW
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:13




                        $begingroup$
                        Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                        $endgroup$
                        – UnknownW
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:13












                        $begingroup$
                        Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                        $endgroup$
                        – jackson5
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:15




                        $begingroup$
                        Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                        $endgroup$
                        – jackson5
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:15











                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Two proofs.



                        If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                        equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                        some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                        equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                        Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                        If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                        is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                        To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Two proofs.



                          If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                          equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                          some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                          equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                          Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                          If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                          is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                          To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Two proofs.



                            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Two proofs.



                            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 1 '18 at 23:27

























                            answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:22









                            William ElliotWilliam Elliot

                            7,7322720




                            7,7322720























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                  Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                  Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                  Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                  $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                  $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                  $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                  $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                  $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                  Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                  Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                    Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                    Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                    Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                    $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                    $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                    $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                    $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                    $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                    Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                    Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                    Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                    Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                    Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                    $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                    $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                    $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                    $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                    $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                    Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                    Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:41









                                    Bertrand Wittgenstein's GhostBertrand Wittgenstein's Ghost

                                    400114




                                    400114






























                                        draft saved

                                        draft discarded




















































                                        Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                                        • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                                        But avoid



                                        • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                                        • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                                        Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                                        To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                                        draft saved


                                        draft discarded














                                        StackExchange.ready(
                                        function () {
                                        StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3021953%2fcardinality-of-two-finite-sets%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                                        }
                                        );

                                        Post as a guest















                                        Required, but never shown





















































                                        Required, but never shown














                                        Required, but never shown












                                        Required, but never shown







                                        Required, but never shown

































                                        Required, but never shown














                                        Required, but never shown












                                        Required, but never shown







                                        Required, but never shown







                                        Popular posts from this blog

                                        Plaza Victoria

                                        Puebla de Zaragoza

                                        Musa