Cardinality of two finite sets
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Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.
Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.
My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.
Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?
discrete-mathematics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.
Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.
My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.
Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?
discrete-mathematics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.
Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.
My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.
Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?
discrete-mathematics
$endgroup$
Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.
Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.
My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.
Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?
discrete-mathematics
discrete-mathematics
asked Dec 1 '18 at 23:04
UnknownWUnknownW
985822
985822
add a comment |
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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To save you a lot of headache:
That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].
If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:
this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.
Nothing more. Nothing less.
So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).
We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).
If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.
So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.
... You're welcome.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.
$endgroup$
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Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
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– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
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Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Two proofs.
If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are
equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for
some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because
equinumerous is an equivalence relation.
Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.
If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$
is a bijection from B to I$_n$.
To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:
Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$
Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.
Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
$forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$
$$x_irightarrow y_m$$
$$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
$$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
$$x_krightarrow y_o$$
Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.
Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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votes
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$begingroup$
To save you a lot of headache:
That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].
If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:
this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.
Nothing more. Nothing less.
So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).
We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).
If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.
So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.
... You're welcome.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To save you a lot of headache:
That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].
If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:
this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.
Nothing more. Nothing less.
So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).
We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).
If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.
So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.
... You're welcome.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To save you a lot of headache:
That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].
If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:
this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.
Nothing more. Nothing less.
So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).
We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).
If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.
So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.
... You're welcome.
$endgroup$
To save you a lot of headache:
That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].
If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:
this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.
Nothing more. Nothing less.
So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).
We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).
If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.
So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.
... You're welcome.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 0:03
fleabloodfleablood
69.3k22685
69.3k22685
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.
$endgroup$
Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.
answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:10
jackson5jackson5
606512
606512
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
$endgroup$
– UnknownW
Dec 1 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
$endgroup$
– jackson5
Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Two proofs.
If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are
equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for
some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because
equinumerous is an equivalence relation.
Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.
If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$
is a bijection from B to I$_n$.
To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Two proofs.
If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are
equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for
some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because
equinumerous is an equivalence relation.
Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.
If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$
is a bijection from B to I$_n$.
To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Two proofs.
If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are
equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for
some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because
equinumerous is an equivalence relation.
Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.
If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$
is a bijection from B to I$_n$.
To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.
$endgroup$
Two proofs.
If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are
equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for
some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because
equinumerous is an equivalence relation.
Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.
If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$
is a bijection from B to I$_n$.
To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.
edited Dec 1 '18 at 23:27
answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:22
William ElliotWilliam Elliot
7,7322720
7,7322720
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:
Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$
Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.
Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
$forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$
$$x_irightarrow y_m$$
$$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
$$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
$$x_krightarrow y_o$$
Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.
Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:
Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$
Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.
Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
$forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$
$$x_irightarrow y_m$$
$$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
$$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
$$x_krightarrow y_o$$
Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.
Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:
Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$
Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.
Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
$forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$
$$x_irightarrow y_m$$
$$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
$$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
$$x_krightarrow y_o$$
Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.
Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.
$endgroup$
You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:
Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$
Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.
Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
$forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$
$$x_irightarrow y_m$$
$$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
$$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
$$x_krightarrow y_o$$
Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.
Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.
answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:41
Bertrand Wittgenstein's GhostBertrand Wittgenstein's Ghost
400114
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