Cardinality of two finite sets












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Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



    Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



    My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



    Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



      Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



      My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



      Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Definition: Let $A$ be a set, and define $I_n={mmid 1leq mleq n}$ for $ninmathbb{N}$. It is said that $A$ is finite if there exist $kinmathbb{N}$ such that $A$ and $I_k$ are equinumerous. In this case, the number $k$ is called the cardinality of $A$, written $|A|$.



      Then, there's a theorem that says: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If $f$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$.



      My first idea is to construct two functions $f_1,f_2$ that are bijective so that $f_1circ f_2=f$. It should be something like $Ato I_n$ and $I_nto B$ for some $n$, but I am unable to define the right functions, as the function $f$ is not explicitly defined.



      Does the other direction hold in the theorem? I.e. if $|A|=|B|$, then there's a bijection between $A$ and $B$?







      discrete-mathematics






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      asked Dec 1 '18 at 23:04









      UnknownWUnknownW

      985822




      985822






















          4 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          To save you a lot of headache:



          That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



          If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




          this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




          Nothing more. Nothing less.



          So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



          We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



          If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



          So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



          ... You're welcome.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
              $endgroup$
              – UnknownW
              Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










            • $begingroup$
              Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
              $endgroup$
              – jackson5
              Dec 1 '18 at 23:15



















            0












            $begingroup$

            Two proofs.



            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$





















              0












              $begingroup$

              You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



              Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



              Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



              Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
              $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



              $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
              $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
              $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
              $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



              Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



              Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                4 Answers
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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

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                active

                oldest

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                active

                oldest

                votes









                1












                $begingroup$

                To save you a lot of headache:



                That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                Nothing more. Nothing less.



                So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                ... You're welcome.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  To save you a lot of headache:



                  That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                  If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                  this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                  Nothing more. Nothing less.



                  So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                  We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                  If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                  So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                  ... You're welcome.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    To save you a lot of headache:



                    That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                    If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                    this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                    Nothing more. Nothing less.



                    So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                    We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                    If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                    So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                    ... You're welcome.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    To save you a lot of headache:



                    That there is a bijection: $phi:mathbb N_kto A$ means that every $ain A$ is such that $phi(j) = n$ for some $j; 1le j le k$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And that no other element $b in A$ is equal to $phi(j)$ [because $phi$ is one to one] and so $b = phi(l)$ for some other $l$ [because $phi$ is onto]. And for every $m; 1le m le k$ we have $phi(m) = c$ for some distinct $c in B$ [because $phi$ is a function].



                    If we use the notation that $phi(j) = a_j in A$ then:




                    this means nothing more or less than the elements of $A$ may be written as ${a_1, a_2, ....., a_k}$.




                    Nothing more. Nothing less.



                    So $|A| = |B| = k$ means nothing more or less than $A$ can be written as ${a_1, ... , a_k}$. (If we assume $phi(j) = a_j$ for the bijection $phi:mathbb N_k to A$) And that $B$ can be written as ${b_1, ...., b_k}$ (If we assume $psi(j) = b_j$ is the bijection $psi:mathbb N_k to B$).



                    We can find a bijection between $f:Ato B$ via $f(a_j) = b_j$ and that's "clearly" a bijection. (It's onto: for all $b_jin B$ then we can just map $f(a_j) = b_j$. It's one to one. If $a_j ne a_i$ then $f(a_i) = b_ine b_j = f(a_j)$.).



                    If we want to get technical and work backwards $f: A to mathbb N_j to B$ via $f = psicirc phi^{-1}$. i.e. $f(a_j) = psi(phi^{-1}(a_j)) = psi(j) = b_j$. Or $f: a_j to j to a_j$.



                    So from now on out.... all these vague and abstract definitions of cardinality on finite and countable sets... they can be thought of as simply being able to list a count the elements. And that should make things MUCH easier and a LOT clearer.



                    ... You're welcome.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 2 '18 at 0:03









                    fleabloodfleablood

                    69.3k22685




                    69.3k22685























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$













                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15














                        0












                        0








                        0





                        $begingroup$

                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



                        Yes. Order the elements of $A$ and $B$ such that $A = {a_1, dots, a_n}$ and $B = {b_1, dots, b_n}$, where $n in mathbb{N}$ such that $|A| = |B| = |I_n|$. Now, you can define your bijection as $f(a_i) = b_i$ for all $i in I_n$.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:10









                        jackson5jackson5

                        606512




                        606512












                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15


















                        • $begingroup$
                          Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                          $endgroup$
                          – UnknownW
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:13










                        • $begingroup$
                          Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                          $endgroup$
                          – jackson5
                          Dec 1 '18 at 23:15
















                        $begingroup$
                        Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                        $endgroup$
                        – UnknownW
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:13




                        $begingroup$
                        Thank you. Do you think it is impossible to prove the theorem, or is it supposed to be a "definition"?
                        $endgroup$
                        – UnknownW
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:13












                        $begingroup$
                        Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                        $endgroup$
                        – jackson5
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:15




                        $begingroup$
                        Based on the definitions you have given, it is certainly possible to prove the theorem
                        $endgroup$
                        – jackson5
                        Dec 1 '18 at 23:15











                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Two proofs.



                        If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                        equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                        some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                        equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                        Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                        If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                        is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                        To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Two proofs.



                          If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                          equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                          some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                          equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                          Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                          If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                          is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                          To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Two proofs.



                            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Two proofs.



                            If f is a bijection from A to B, then A,B are

                            equinumerous and since A equinumerous I$_n$ for

                            some n in N, B is equinumerous to I$_n$ because

                            equinumerous is an equivalence relation.



                            Assume g:A -> I$_n$ is a bijection for some n.

                            If f:A -> B is a bijection, then gf$^{-1}$

                            is a bijection from B to I$_n$.



                            To answer your last question, A equinumerous B iff by definition, exists bijection f:A -> B.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 1 '18 at 23:27

























                            answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:22









                            William ElliotWilliam Elliot

                            7,7322720




                            7,7322720























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                  Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                  Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                  Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                  $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                  $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                  $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                  $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                  $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                  Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                  Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












                                    0








                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                    Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                    Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                    Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                    $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                    $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                    $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                    $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                    $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                    Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                    Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    You don't need to define a bijection to prove the theorem:



                                    Thm: Let $A$ and $B$ be finite sets. If there is a bijection from $A$ to $B$, then $|A|=|B|$



                                    Therefore, to prove the thm stated above, suppose $P$ and show $Q$ since its a conditional.



                                    Suppose, $exists Fni text{$F$ is a bijection from $A$ to $B$ }$. Which means F is injective and surjective, therefore,
                                    $forall y in B (exists xin A)ni F(x)=y$ and $forall x,yin A(F(x)=F(y)implies x=y)$



                                    $$x_irightarrow y_m$$
                                    $$x_jrightarrow y_n$$
                                    $$vdotsrightarrow vdots$$
                                    $$x_krightarrow y_o$$



                                    Therefore, $|A|$ being nothing but the number of elements in the set $A$ is equal to $|B|$ since there is one-to-one and onto correspondace between the elements of the set. Therefore, $|A|=|B|$.



                                    Yes, the other direction of the conditional holds. Notice, if you have two sets $C$ and $D$ with equal equal elements in both, that is $|C|=|D|$. Then you can define a function that maps every element of $D$ to $C$ or vise-verse. Therefore, we will have a bijection.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:41









                                    Bertrand Wittgenstein's GhostBertrand Wittgenstein's Ghost

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