Why can't Eisenstein Criterion be used for certain polynomials (to show that it's irreducible over...












1












$begingroup$


Why can't Eisenstein's Criterion be used to show that
$$4x^{10} - 9x^{3} + 21x - 18$$
is irreducible over $mathbb{Q}$?



I mean even if we were to apply Eisenstein here, there doesn't exist a prime $p$ that would apply all the E.C. rules anyways.



A detailed explanation would be great! Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    May 13 '15 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
    $endgroup$
    – James
    May 13 '15 at 21:44
















1












$begingroup$


Why can't Eisenstein's Criterion be used to show that
$$4x^{10} - 9x^{3} + 21x - 18$$
is irreducible over $mathbb{Q}$?



I mean even if we were to apply Eisenstein here, there doesn't exist a prime $p$ that would apply all the E.C. rules anyways.



A detailed explanation would be great! Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    May 13 '15 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
    $endgroup$
    – James
    May 13 '15 at 21:44














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Why can't Eisenstein's Criterion be used to show that
$$4x^{10} - 9x^{3} + 21x - 18$$
is irreducible over $mathbb{Q}$?



I mean even if we were to apply Eisenstein here, there doesn't exist a prime $p$ that would apply all the E.C. rules anyways.



A detailed explanation would be great! Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Why can't Eisenstein's Criterion be used to show that
$$4x^{10} - 9x^{3} + 21x - 18$$
is irreducible over $mathbb{Q}$?



I mean even if we were to apply Eisenstein here, there doesn't exist a prime $p$ that would apply all the E.C. rules anyways.



A detailed explanation would be great! Thanks.







abstract-algebra field-theory irreducible-polynomials






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited May 13 '15 at 21:35









Ken

3,63151728




3,63151728










asked May 13 '15 at 21:07









dean3794dean3794

788




788












  • $begingroup$
    @WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    May 13 '15 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
    $endgroup$
    – James
    May 13 '15 at 21:44


















  • $begingroup$
    @WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    May 13 '15 at 21:39










  • $begingroup$
    @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
    $endgroup$
    – dean3794
    May 13 '15 at 21:41










  • $begingroup$
    I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
    $endgroup$
    – James
    May 13 '15 at 21:44
















$begingroup$
@WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
$endgroup$
– dean3794
May 13 '15 at 21:14




$begingroup$
@WillJagy but why would you want to do that when you have a degree as big as 10?
$endgroup$
– dean3794
May 13 '15 at 21:14




1




1




$begingroup$
Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
May 13 '15 at 21:39




$begingroup$
Your cuestión is a bit weird: Eisenstein's criterion cannot be applied to that polynomial simply because there is no prime for which the required condition is satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
May 13 '15 at 21:39












$begingroup$
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
$endgroup$
– dean3794
May 13 '15 at 21:41




$begingroup$
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez hmm okay. Because working this out as a true and false question o thought it meant that using the Eisenstein Method is not sufficient to show that this polynomial is irreducible
$endgroup$
– dean3794
May 13 '15 at 21:41












$begingroup$
I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
$endgroup$
– James
May 13 '15 at 21:44




$begingroup$
I'm not sure what your question is. Is it "here is a polynomial that I know to be irreducible, why can't I deduce that it's irreducible from Eisenstein?" because you seemed to have answered that already in the statement of your question - i.e. Eisenstein doesn't apply for any prime $p$, since $3^2 | 18$.
$endgroup$
– James
May 13 '15 at 21:44










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

If $f(x)$ is a polynomial in $mathbf Z[x]$ such that $f(ax+b)$ is Eisenstein with respect to a prime $p$ for some integers (or rational numbers) $a$ and $b$, then (i) $f(x)$ is irreducible over the $p$-adic numbers $mathbf Q_p$ and (ii) $p$ divides the discriminant of $f(x)$. I find with PARI that your polynomial has discriminant with prime factors $2$, $3$, $61$, $293$, and $50997533$, and for each of these primes $p$ I find with PARI that $f(x)$ is reducible over $mathbf Q_p$ (it has a factor of degree $1$ or $2$ in each case). This proves you can't convert $f(x)$ into an Eisenstein polynomial by a linear change of variables.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:44












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
    $endgroup$
    – KCd
    Dec 3 '18 at 19:58



















1












$begingroup$

The only prime that divides 9, 21, and 18 is 3. But $3^2 | 18$, so the Eisenstein criterion does not apply here.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:23










  • $begingroup$
    Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
    $endgroup$
    – William Stagner
    May 13 '15 at 21:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:30











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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2






active

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active

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active

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votes









2












$begingroup$

If $f(x)$ is a polynomial in $mathbf Z[x]$ such that $f(ax+b)$ is Eisenstein with respect to a prime $p$ for some integers (or rational numbers) $a$ and $b$, then (i) $f(x)$ is irreducible over the $p$-adic numbers $mathbf Q_p$ and (ii) $p$ divides the discriminant of $f(x)$. I find with PARI that your polynomial has discriminant with prime factors $2$, $3$, $61$, $293$, and $50997533$, and for each of these primes $p$ I find with PARI that $f(x)$ is reducible over $mathbf Q_p$ (it has a factor of degree $1$ or $2$ in each case). This proves you can't convert $f(x)$ into an Eisenstein polynomial by a linear change of variables.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:44












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
    $endgroup$
    – KCd
    Dec 3 '18 at 19:58
















2












$begingroup$

If $f(x)$ is a polynomial in $mathbf Z[x]$ such that $f(ax+b)$ is Eisenstein with respect to a prime $p$ for some integers (or rational numbers) $a$ and $b$, then (i) $f(x)$ is irreducible over the $p$-adic numbers $mathbf Q_p$ and (ii) $p$ divides the discriminant of $f(x)$. I find with PARI that your polynomial has discriminant with prime factors $2$, $3$, $61$, $293$, and $50997533$, and for each of these primes $p$ I find with PARI that $f(x)$ is reducible over $mathbf Q_p$ (it has a factor of degree $1$ or $2$ in each case). This proves you can't convert $f(x)$ into an Eisenstein polynomial by a linear change of variables.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:44












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
    $endgroup$
    – KCd
    Dec 3 '18 at 19:58














2












2








2





$begingroup$

If $f(x)$ is a polynomial in $mathbf Z[x]$ such that $f(ax+b)$ is Eisenstein with respect to a prime $p$ for some integers (or rational numbers) $a$ and $b$, then (i) $f(x)$ is irreducible over the $p$-adic numbers $mathbf Q_p$ and (ii) $p$ divides the discriminant of $f(x)$. I find with PARI that your polynomial has discriminant with prime factors $2$, $3$, $61$, $293$, and $50997533$, and for each of these primes $p$ I find with PARI that $f(x)$ is reducible over $mathbf Q_p$ (it has a factor of degree $1$ or $2$ in each case). This proves you can't convert $f(x)$ into an Eisenstein polynomial by a linear change of variables.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



If $f(x)$ is a polynomial in $mathbf Z[x]$ such that $f(ax+b)$ is Eisenstein with respect to a prime $p$ for some integers (or rational numbers) $a$ and $b$, then (i) $f(x)$ is irreducible over the $p$-adic numbers $mathbf Q_p$ and (ii) $p$ divides the discriminant of $f(x)$. I find with PARI that your polynomial has discriminant with prime factors $2$, $3$, $61$, $293$, and $50997533$, and for each of these primes $p$ I find with PARI that $f(x)$ is reducible over $mathbf Q_p$ (it has a factor of degree $1$ or $2$ in each case). This proves you can't convert $f(x)$ into an Eisenstein polynomial by a linear change of variables.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 1 '18 at 21:06









KCdKCd

16.7k4075




16.7k4075












  • $begingroup$
    Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:44












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
    $endgroup$
    – KCd
    Dec 3 '18 at 19:58


















  • $begingroup$
    Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 3 '18 at 16:44












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
    $endgroup$
    – KCd
    Dec 3 '18 at 19:58
















$begingroup$
Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
$endgroup$
– Henry
Dec 3 '18 at 16:44






$begingroup$
Hello. Off topic, but I wanted to know if you had a reference for Fermat's own proof of the two square theorem, as you stated here, as a remark on page 28? I couldn't find the entire proof anywhere.
$endgroup$
– Henry
Dec 3 '18 at 16:44














$begingroup$
@Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
$endgroup$
– KCd
Dec 3 '18 at 19:58




$begingroup$
@Henry there is no record of a detailed proof by Fermat on anything. He usually just claimed to be able to do things, and a few times he very briefly sketched the idea. For the two square theorem, see Remark 5.2 of math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/ugradnumthy/descent.pdf.
$endgroup$
– KCd
Dec 3 '18 at 19:58











1












$begingroup$

The only prime that divides 9, 21, and 18 is 3. But $3^2 | 18$, so the Eisenstein criterion does not apply here.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:23










  • $begingroup$
    Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
    $endgroup$
    – William Stagner
    May 13 '15 at 21:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:30
















1












$begingroup$

The only prime that divides 9, 21, and 18 is 3. But $3^2 | 18$, so the Eisenstein criterion does not apply here.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:23










  • $begingroup$
    Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
    $endgroup$
    – William Stagner
    May 13 '15 at 21:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:30














1












1








1





$begingroup$

The only prime that divides 9, 21, and 18 is 3. But $3^2 | 18$, so the Eisenstein criterion does not apply here.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The only prime that divides 9, 21, and 18 is 3. But $3^2 | 18$, so the Eisenstein criterion does not apply here.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered May 13 '15 at 21:11









William StagnerWilliam Stagner

3,5831027




3,5831027








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:23










  • $begingroup$
    Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
    $endgroup$
    – William Stagner
    May 13 '15 at 21:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:30














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:23










  • $begingroup$
    Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
    $endgroup$
    – William Stagner
    May 13 '15 at 21:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
    $endgroup$
    – k1.M
    May 13 '15 at 21:30








2




2




$begingroup$
The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
$endgroup$
– k1.M
May 13 '15 at 21:23




$begingroup$
The polynomial $1+x+x^2+dots+x^{p-1}$ is irreducible by Eisenestein's theorem. But your method doesn't works.
$endgroup$
– k1.M
May 13 '15 at 21:23












$begingroup$
Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
$endgroup$
– William Stagner
May 13 '15 at 21:28




$begingroup$
Eisenstein applies there, but not directly. You must substitute $xmapsto x+1$. In general, it is not easy to see whether or not this is possible, so I answered the question for the specific polynomial specified by the OP.
$endgroup$
– William Stagner
May 13 '15 at 21:28




1




1




$begingroup$
So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
$endgroup$
– k1.M
May 13 '15 at 21:30




$begingroup$
So you can't say that a method doesn't applies, because always there exists tricky methods, and this is mathematics...
$endgroup$
– k1.M
May 13 '15 at 21:30


















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