Proving continuity of $f$ at exactly one point












1












$begingroup$


We can check if some function $g(x) =...$ (some random function, irrelevant to this case) is continuous at a given point $x_{0}=c iff lim_{xto c^+} g(x) = g(c) quadlandquad lim_{xto c^-} g(x) = g(c).$



If both conditions are satisfied, then the function is continuous at such point $x_{0} = c$. I suppose so far everything is correct, I hope?



I need to prove that the function $f(x) = begin{cases}
x & text{if } x in mathbb{Q} \
0 & text{if } x in mathbb{R}/mathbb{Q}
end{cases} quad$
is continuous exactly at one point $x_{0}=0$.
The domain is $D_{f}=mathbb{R}$.



I am struggling because this is a function that is "made out of two sub-functions".



It is clear to me that the reason why this function is continuous only at $x_{0}=0$ is because $0$ is a rational number, so we get $f(0)=0$ for both "sub-functions" - and that is the only point in the graph where both "sub functions" (how do I call it properly?) are in the same spot (touching each other). Thus, function is continuous only at that specific point.



How can I finish the proof in a good, math-fashioned style using limits?



I came up with: $$ x_{0}=0in mathbb{Q} rightarrow lim_{xto 0^+} x = 0 quad land quad lim_{xto 0^-} x = 0,$$hence function is continuous at $x_{0}=0$. But I am afraid it's not good enough to be a completed proof.



Hints, tips, advices to formalize this proof are appreciated. Thanks.










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$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:17
















1












$begingroup$


We can check if some function $g(x) =...$ (some random function, irrelevant to this case) is continuous at a given point $x_{0}=c iff lim_{xto c^+} g(x) = g(c) quadlandquad lim_{xto c^-} g(x) = g(c).$



If both conditions are satisfied, then the function is continuous at such point $x_{0} = c$. I suppose so far everything is correct, I hope?



I need to prove that the function $f(x) = begin{cases}
x & text{if } x in mathbb{Q} \
0 & text{if } x in mathbb{R}/mathbb{Q}
end{cases} quad$
is continuous exactly at one point $x_{0}=0$.
The domain is $D_{f}=mathbb{R}$.



I am struggling because this is a function that is "made out of two sub-functions".



It is clear to me that the reason why this function is continuous only at $x_{0}=0$ is because $0$ is a rational number, so we get $f(0)=0$ for both "sub-functions" - and that is the only point in the graph where both "sub functions" (how do I call it properly?) are in the same spot (touching each other). Thus, function is continuous only at that specific point.



How can I finish the proof in a good, math-fashioned style using limits?



I came up with: $$ x_{0}=0in mathbb{Q} rightarrow lim_{xto 0^+} x = 0 quad land quad lim_{xto 0^-} x = 0,$$hence function is continuous at $x_{0}=0$. But I am afraid it's not good enough to be a completed proof.



Hints, tips, advices to formalize this proof are appreciated. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:17














1












1








1





$begingroup$


We can check if some function $g(x) =...$ (some random function, irrelevant to this case) is continuous at a given point $x_{0}=c iff lim_{xto c^+} g(x) = g(c) quadlandquad lim_{xto c^-} g(x) = g(c).$



If both conditions are satisfied, then the function is continuous at such point $x_{0} = c$. I suppose so far everything is correct, I hope?



I need to prove that the function $f(x) = begin{cases}
x & text{if } x in mathbb{Q} \
0 & text{if } x in mathbb{R}/mathbb{Q}
end{cases} quad$
is continuous exactly at one point $x_{0}=0$.
The domain is $D_{f}=mathbb{R}$.



I am struggling because this is a function that is "made out of two sub-functions".



It is clear to me that the reason why this function is continuous only at $x_{0}=0$ is because $0$ is a rational number, so we get $f(0)=0$ for both "sub-functions" - and that is the only point in the graph where both "sub functions" (how do I call it properly?) are in the same spot (touching each other). Thus, function is continuous only at that specific point.



How can I finish the proof in a good, math-fashioned style using limits?



I came up with: $$ x_{0}=0in mathbb{Q} rightarrow lim_{xto 0^+} x = 0 quad land quad lim_{xto 0^-} x = 0,$$hence function is continuous at $x_{0}=0$. But I am afraid it's not good enough to be a completed proof.



Hints, tips, advices to formalize this proof are appreciated. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




We can check if some function $g(x) =...$ (some random function, irrelevant to this case) is continuous at a given point $x_{0}=c iff lim_{xto c^+} g(x) = g(c) quadlandquad lim_{xto c^-} g(x) = g(c).$



If both conditions are satisfied, then the function is continuous at such point $x_{0} = c$. I suppose so far everything is correct, I hope?



I need to prove that the function $f(x) = begin{cases}
x & text{if } x in mathbb{Q} \
0 & text{if } x in mathbb{R}/mathbb{Q}
end{cases} quad$
is continuous exactly at one point $x_{0}=0$.
The domain is $D_{f}=mathbb{R}$.



I am struggling because this is a function that is "made out of two sub-functions".



It is clear to me that the reason why this function is continuous only at $x_{0}=0$ is because $0$ is a rational number, so we get $f(0)=0$ for both "sub-functions" - and that is the only point in the graph where both "sub functions" (how do I call it properly?) are in the same spot (touching each other). Thus, function is continuous only at that specific point.



How can I finish the proof in a good, math-fashioned style using limits?



I came up with: $$ x_{0}=0in mathbb{Q} rightarrow lim_{xto 0^+} x = 0 quad land quad lim_{xto 0^-} x = 0,$$hence function is continuous at $x_{0}=0$. But I am afraid it's not good enough to be a completed proof.



Hints, tips, advices to formalize this proof are appreciated. Thanks.







real-analysis limits continuity graphing-functions






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asked Dec 2 '18 at 0:13









wenoweno

1349




1349








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:17














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:17








3




3




$begingroup$
An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 2 '18 at 0:17




$begingroup$
An $varepsilon-delta$ proof is the easiest way to do this, I think, and it is, in fact, very easy.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Dec 2 '18 at 0:17










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let $x in mathbb R$, $x$ constant. If $(rho_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers with $$lim rho_n = x Rightarrow lim f(rho_n) = lim rho_n = x$$
If $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers with
$$lim a_n = x Rightarrow lim f(a_n) = 0$$
then, it is
$$lim f(rho_n)neqlim f(a_n) Leftrightarrow x neq 0$$
Thus, $f$ is not continuous at $mathbb R setminus {0}$.



We will now show that $f$ is continuous at $0$. It is $f(0) =0$. For all $|x| < 1$, we have :
$$|f(x) - f(0)| = |f(x)| leq max{|x|,0} = |x|$$
thus $lim_{xto 0} f(x) = f(0)$ which means that $f$ is continuous at $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:31












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:36






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:38










  • $begingroup$
    By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:52



















0












$begingroup$

You need to deal with a point $ainmathbb{R} $ and consider the case $a=0$ and $aneq 0$.



The use of $epsilon, delta$ definition is particularly very easy here and hence we follow that approach. Let's first prove that $f$ is continuous at $a=0$. Clearly we have $f(a) =f(0)=0$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given and we choose $delta =epsilon $. If $0<|x-a|=|x|<delta$ then for irrational $x$ we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |=|x|<delta =epsilon $$ and for rational $x$ we have $|f(x) - f(a) |=0<epsilon $ therefore by definition $lim_{xto a} f(x) =f(a) $ and $f$ is continuous at $a=0$.



For $aneq 0$ we need to consider the cases when $a$ is rational and when $a$ is irrational. I show here the case when $a$ is rational and $aneq 0$. Here $f(a) =0$ and $|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |$. Let $epsilon=|a|/2$ and choose any arbitrary $delta>0$. Then there is an irrational number $x$ which satisfies $$0<|x-a|<min(epsilon,delta)$$ and we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|x|=|a-(a-x) |geq |a|-|a-x|>|a|-epsilon=epsilon$$ Thus the limit of $f(x) $ as $xto a$ is not $f(a) $ and $f$ is discontinuous at $a$. You should prove in similar manner that $f$ is discontinuous at $a$ if $a$ is irrational.






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    2 Answers
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    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $x in mathbb R$, $x$ constant. If $(rho_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers with $$lim rho_n = x Rightarrow lim f(rho_n) = lim rho_n = x$$
    If $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers with
    $$lim a_n = x Rightarrow lim f(a_n) = 0$$
    then, it is
    $$lim f(rho_n)neqlim f(a_n) Leftrightarrow x neq 0$$
    Thus, $f$ is not continuous at $mathbb R setminus {0}$.



    We will now show that $f$ is continuous at $0$. It is $f(0) =0$. For all $|x| < 1$, we have :
    $$|f(x) - f(0)| = |f(x)| leq max{|x|,0} = |x|$$
    thus $lim_{xto 0} f(x) = f(0)$ which means that $f$ is continuous at $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:29








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:31












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:38










    • $begingroup$
      By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:52
















    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $x in mathbb R$, $x$ constant. If $(rho_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers with $$lim rho_n = x Rightarrow lim f(rho_n) = lim rho_n = x$$
    If $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers with
    $$lim a_n = x Rightarrow lim f(a_n) = 0$$
    then, it is
    $$lim f(rho_n)neqlim f(a_n) Leftrightarrow x neq 0$$
    Thus, $f$ is not continuous at $mathbb R setminus {0}$.



    We will now show that $f$ is continuous at $0$. It is $f(0) =0$. For all $|x| < 1$, we have :
    $$|f(x) - f(0)| = |f(x)| leq max{|x|,0} = |x|$$
    thus $lim_{xto 0} f(x) = f(0)$ which means that $f$ is continuous at $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:29








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:31












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:38










    • $begingroup$
      By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:52














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Let $x in mathbb R$, $x$ constant. If $(rho_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers with $$lim rho_n = x Rightarrow lim f(rho_n) = lim rho_n = x$$
    If $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers with
    $$lim a_n = x Rightarrow lim f(a_n) = 0$$
    then, it is
    $$lim f(rho_n)neqlim f(a_n) Leftrightarrow x neq 0$$
    Thus, $f$ is not continuous at $mathbb R setminus {0}$.



    We will now show that $f$ is continuous at $0$. It is $f(0) =0$. For all $|x| < 1$, we have :
    $$|f(x) - f(0)| = |f(x)| leq max{|x|,0} = |x|$$
    thus $lim_{xto 0} f(x) = f(0)$ which means that $f$ is continuous at $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Let $x in mathbb R$, $x$ constant. If $(rho_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers with $$lim rho_n = x Rightarrow lim f(rho_n) = lim rho_n = x$$
    If $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers with
    $$lim a_n = x Rightarrow lim f(a_n) = 0$$
    then, it is
    $$lim f(rho_n)neqlim f(a_n) Leftrightarrow x neq 0$$
    Thus, $f$ is not continuous at $mathbb R setminus {0}$.



    We will now show that $f$ is continuous at $0$. It is $f(0) =0$. For all $|x| < 1$, we have :
    $$|f(x) - f(0)| = |f(x)| leq max{|x|,0} = |x|$$
    thus $lim_{xto 0} f(x) = f(0)$ which means that $f$ is continuous at $0$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 2 '18 at 0:21









    RebellosRebellos

    14.5k31246




    14.5k31246












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:29








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:31












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:38










    • $begingroup$
      By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:52


















    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:29








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:31












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
      $endgroup$
      – weno
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:36






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:38










    • $begingroup$
      By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
      $endgroup$
      – Rebellos
      Dec 2 '18 at 0:52
















    $begingroup$
    Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:29






    $begingroup$
    Thanks for your input. May I ask why is it $lim a_{n}=x$ rather than $lim a_{n}=0$? Also, what does the $maxbig(|x|,0 )$ notation mean?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:29






    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:31






    $begingroup$
    @weno $(a_n)$ is just a sequence defined to converge at some real (irrational) number $x$. That's why. Then $lim f(a_n) = f(x)$. But $(a_n)$ is a sequence of irrational numbers, which means that $f(x) = 0$. Finally, the notation $max{|x|,0}$ means you're picking the maximum element out of $|x|$ and $0$. But $|x| geq 0, ; forall x in mathbb R$. Note that it comes handy since the absolute value of a function $f(x)$ can never be bigger than its own maximum.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:31














    $begingroup$
    Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:36




    $begingroup$
    Thanks, that makes sense. Just one more question: why below the $lim$ notations does it not say that $n rightarrow infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – weno
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:36




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:38




    $begingroup$
    @weno It indeed is $lim_{n to infty} (...)$ but I skipped it for the sake of simplification (it's oftenly skipped when talking about sequences because the limit of a sequence is its limit to infinity anyway).
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:38












    $begingroup$
    By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:52




    $begingroup$
    By the way, if any answer to your posts answers the best to your question, you may accept it using the tick button below the votes.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 2 '18 at 0:52











    0












    $begingroup$

    You need to deal with a point $ainmathbb{R} $ and consider the case $a=0$ and $aneq 0$.



    The use of $epsilon, delta$ definition is particularly very easy here and hence we follow that approach. Let's first prove that $f$ is continuous at $a=0$. Clearly we have $f(a) =f(0)=0$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given and we choose $delta =epsilon $. If $0<|x-a|=|x|<delta$ then for irrational $x$ we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |=|x|<delta =epsilon $$ and for rational $x$ we have $|f(x) - f(a) |=0<epsilon $ therefore by definition $lim_{xto a} f(x) =f(a) $ and $f$ is continuous at $a=0$.



    For $aneq 0$ we need to consider the cases when $a$ is rational and when $a$ is irrational. I show here the case when $a$ is rational and $aneq 0$. Here $f(a) =0$ and $|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |$. Let $epsilon=|a|/2$ and choose any arbitrary $delta>0$. Then there is an irrational number $x$ which satisfies $$0<|x-a|<min(epsilon,delta)$$ and we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|x|=|a-(a-x) |geq |a|-|a-x|>|a|-epsilon=epsilon$$ Thus the limit of $f(x) $ as $xto a$ is not $f(a) $ and $f$ is discontinuous at $a$. You should prove in similar manner that $f$ is discontinuous at $a$ if $a$ is irrational.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      You need to deal with a point $ainmathbb{R} $ and consider the case $a=0$ and $aneq 0$.



      The use of $epsilon, delta$ definition is particularly very easy here and hence we follow that approach. Let's first prove that $f$ is continuous at $a=0$. Clearly we have $f(a) =f(0)=0$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given and we choose $delta =epsilon $. If $0<|x-a|=|x|<delta$ then for irrational $x$ we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |=|x|<delta =epsilon $$ and for rational $x$ we have $|f(x) - f(a) |=0<epsilon $ therefore by definition $lim_{xto a} f(x) =f(a) $ and $f$ is continuous at $a=0$.



      For $aneq 0$ we need to consider the cases when $a$ is rational and when $a$ is irrational. I show here the case when $a$ is rational and $aneq 0$. Here $f(a) =0$ and $|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |$. Let $epsilon=|a|/2$ and choose any arbitrary $delta>0$. Then there is an irrational number $x$ which satisfies $$0<|x-a|<min(epsilon,delta)$$ and we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|x|=|a-(a-x) |geq |a|-|a-x|>|a|-epsilon=epsilon$$ Thus the limit of $f(x) $ as $xto a$ is not $f(a) $ and $f$ is discontinuous at $a$. You should prove in similar manner that $f$ is discontinuous at $a$ if $a$ is irrational.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        You need to deal with a point $ainmathbb{R} $ and consider the case $a=0$ and $aneq 0$.



        The use of $epsilon, delta$ definition is particularly very easy here and hence we follow that approach. Let's first prove that $f$ is continuous at $a=0$. Clearly we have $f(a) =f(0)=0$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given and we choose $delta =epsilon $. If $0<|x-a|=|x|<delta$ then for irrational $x$ we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |=|x|<delta =epsilon $$ and for rational $x$ we have $|f(x) - f(a) |=0<epsilon $ therefore by definition $lim_{xto a} f(x) =f(a) $ and $f$ is continuous at $a=0$.



        For $aneq 0$ we need to consider the cases when $a$ is rational and when $a$ is irrational. I show here the case when $a$ is rational and $aneq 0$. Here $f(a) =0$ and $|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |$. Let $epsilon=|a|/2$ and choose any arbitrary $delta>0$. Then there is an irrational number $x$ which satisfies $$0<|x-a|<min(epsilon,delta)$$ and we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|x|=|a-(a-x) |geq |a|-|a-x|>|a|-epsilon=epsilon$$ Thus the limit of $f(x) $ as $xto a$ is not $f(a) $ and $f$ is discontinuous at $a$. You should prove in similar manner that $f$ is discontinuous at $a$ if $a$ is irrational.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You need to deal with a point $ainmathbb{R} $ and consider the case $a=0$ and $aneq 0$.



        The use of $epsilon, delta$ definition is particularly very easy here and hence we follow that approach. Let's first prove that $f$ is continuous at $a=0$. Clearly we have $f(a) =f(0)=0$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given and we choose $delta =epsilon $. If $0<|x-a|=|x|<delta$ then for irrational $x$ we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |=|x|<delta =epsilon $$ and for rational $x$ we have $|f(x) - f(a) |=0<epsilon $ therefore by definition $lim_{xto a} f(x) =f(a) $ and $f$ is continuous at $a=0$.



        For $aneq 0$ we need to consider the cases when $a$ is rational and when $a$ is irrational. I show here the case when $a$ is rational and $aneq 0$. Here $f(a) =0$ and $|f(x) - f(a) |=|f(x) |$. Let $epsilon=|a|/2$ and choose any arbitrary $delta>0$. Then there is an irrational number $x$ which satisfies $$0<|x-a|<min(epsilon,delta)$$ and we have $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|x|=|a-(a-x) |geq |a|-|a-x|>|a|-epsilon=epsilon$$ Thus the limit of $f(x) $ as $xto a$ is not $f(a) $ and $f$ is discontinuous at $a$. You should prove in similar manner that $f$ is discontinuous at $a$ if $a$ is irrational.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 2 '18 at 1:49









        Paramanand SinghParamanand Singh

        49.6k556163




        49.6k556163






























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