A function in $W^{2,p}$ for $p>n/2$ is a.e. second differentiable
$begingroup$
Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?
This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).
My attempt so far:
I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.
Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
$$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
$$
Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
$$
h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
$$
and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
$$
||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
$$
Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.
By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
$$
||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
$$
Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
$$
||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
$$
||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
How can I resolve this problem?
Thanks for any suggestion.
real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?
This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).
My attempt so far:
I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.
Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
$$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
$$
Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
$$
h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
$$
and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
$$
||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
$$
Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.
By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
$$
||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
$$
Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
$$
||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
$$
||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
How can I resolve this problem?
Thanks for any suggestion.
real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?
This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).
My attempt so far:
I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.
Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
$$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
$$
Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
$$
h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
$$
and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
$$
||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
$$
Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.
By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
$$
||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
$$
Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
$$
||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
$$
||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
How can I resolve this problem?
Thanks for any suggestion.
real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes
$endgroup$
Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?
This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).
My attempt so far:
I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.
Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
$$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
$$
Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
$$
h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
$$
and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
$$
||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
$$
Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.
By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
$$
||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
$$
Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
$$
||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
$$
||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
How can I resolve this problem?
Thanks for any suggestion.
real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes
real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes
edited Dec 16 '18 at 17:30
Hahn
asked Dec 16 '18 at 16:39
HahnHahn
597
597
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
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$begingroup$
Hint: From
$$
left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
and the triangle inequality, you have
$$
left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
|
show 1 more comment
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Hint: From
$$
left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
and the triangle inequality, you have
$$
left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Hint: From
$$
left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
and the triangle inequality, you have
$$
left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Hint: From
$$
left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
and the triangle inequality, you have
$$
left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
$$
$endgroup$
Hint: From
$$
left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$
and the triangle inequality, you have
$$
left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
$$
answered Dec 17 '18 at 7:17
gerwgerw
19.6k11334
19.6k11334
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:17
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:32
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:36
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 17 '18 at 8:39
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
$begingroup$
No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
$endgroup$
– Hahn
Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
|
show 1 more comment
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