A function in $W^{2,p}$ for $p>n/2$ is a.e. second differentiable












1












$begingroup$


Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?



This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).



My attempt so far:



I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.



Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
$$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
$$

Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
$$
h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
$$


and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
$$
||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
$$



Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.



By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
$$
||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
$$



Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
$$
||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$

However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
$$
||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
$$



How can I resolve this problem?



Thanks for any suggestion.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?



    This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).



    My attempt so far:



    I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.



    Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
    $$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
    $$

    Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
    $$
    h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
    $$


    and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
    $$
    ||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
    $$



    Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.



    By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
    $$
    ||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
    $$



    Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
    $$
    ||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
    $$

    However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
    $$
    ||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
    $$



    How can I resolve this problem?



    Thanks for any suggestion.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?



      This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).



      My attempt so far:



      I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.



      Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
      $$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
      $$

      Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
      $$
      h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
      $$


      and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
      $$
      ||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
      $$



      Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.



      By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
      $$
      ||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
      $$



      Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
      $$
      ||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
      $$

      However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
      $$
      ||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
      $$



      How can I resolve this problem?



      Thanks for any suggestion.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $B$ be the unit ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ and $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$. How can we see that $u$ is second differentiable almost everywhere in $B$?



      This result is claimed in Page 25 but I cannot prove it. I can understand the proof of: $vin W^{1,p}(B)$, with $p>n$ then $v$ is differentiable almost everywhere in $B$ (in the same page of the link).



      My attempt so far:



      I try to follow the same method as in Page 25.



      Assume that $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $D^2uin L^p$, i.e.
      $$ |B_r|^{-1}int_{B_r}|D^2u(x)-D^2u(0)|^prightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0. quad (*)
      $$

      Here $B_r$ denotes the ball of radius $r$ centered at the origin. Now, our aim is to show that $u$ is classically second diffentiable at $0$. Set
      $$
      h(x)= u(x)-u(0)-Du(0)x-D^2u(0)dfrac{x^2}{2},
      $$


      and set $h_r(x):=h(rx)/r^{2}$. It is clear to see that it suffices to show
      $$
      ||h_r||_{L^{infty}(B)}rightarrow 0, text{as }rrightarrow 0.quad textbf{(1)}
      $$



      Since $uin W^{2,p}(B)$, with $p>dfrac{n}{2}$, it is not hard to see that $uin W^{1,q}(B)$, for some $q>n$. For example, assume for simplicity that $n>p>frac{n}{2}$ then we can choose $q=np/(n-p)$.



      By Morrey's inequality (since $q>n$),
      $$
      ||h_r-h_r(0)||_{L^{infty}(B)}leq C ||Dh_r||_{L^q(B)}.
      $$



      Note that $h_r(0)=0$, and (*) is equivalent to $||D^2h_r||_{L^p(B)}rightarrow 0$. Therefore, in order to finish the proof (i.e. to show $textbf{(1)}$ is true), we really hope to have the following inequality
      $$
      ||Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
      $$

      However, this cannot be seen by the Sobolev embedding theorem since the Sobolev embedding on a bounded domain should be
      $$
      ||Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_r||_{L^{q}(B)}leq C ||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}(B)}.
      $$



      How can I resolve this problem?



      Thanks for any suggestion.







      real-analysis sobolev-spaces regularity-theory-of-pdes






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 16 '18 at 17:30







      Hahn

















      asked Dec 16 '18 at 16:39









      HahnHahn

      597




      597






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint: From
          $$
          left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
          $$

          and the triangle inequality, you have
          $$
          left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:17












          • $begingroup$
            With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:32










          • $begingroup$
            Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:39










          • $begingroup$
            No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:51











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          $begingroup$

          Hint: From
          $$
          left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
          $$

          and the triangle inequality, you have
          $$
          left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:17












          • $begingroup$
            With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:32










          • $begingroup$
            Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:39










          • $begingroup$
            No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Hint: From
          $$
          left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
          $$

          and the triangle inequality, you have
          $$
          left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:17












          • $begingroup$
            With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:32










          • $begingroup$
            Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:39










          • $begingroup$
            No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:51














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Hint: From
          $$
          left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
          $$

          and the triangle inequality, you have
          $$
          left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Hint: From
          $$
          left|Dh_r-|B|^{-1}int_{B}Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)}.
          $$

          and the triangle inequality, you have
          $$
          left|Dh_rright|_{L^{q}(B)}leq C |D^{2}h_{r}|_{L^{p}(B)} + hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|.
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 17 '18 at 7:17









          gerwgerw

          19.6k11334




          19.6k11334












          • $begingroup$
            Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:17












          • $begingroup$
            With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:32










          • $begingroup$
            Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:39










          • $begingroup$
            No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:51


















          • $begingroup$
            Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:17












          • $begingroup$
            With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:32










          • $begingroup$
            Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:36












          • $begingroup$
            If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
            $endgroup$
            – gerw
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:39










          • $begingroup$
            No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
            $endgroup$
            – Hahn
            Dec 17 '18 at 8:51
















          $begingroup$
          Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:17






          $begingroup$
          Indeed, I still cannot see how $||Dh_r||_{L^{q}}rightarrow 0$. Are you talking about Holder's inequality to do more?
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:17














          $begingroup$
          With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
          $endgroup$
          – gerw
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:32




          $begingroup$
          With which term on the right-hand side do you have problems?
          $endgroup$
          – gerw
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:32












          $begingroup$
          Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:36






          $begingroup$
          Since $||D^{2}h_{r}||_{L^{p}} rightarrow 0$, we need something like $ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright|< (1-epsilon) ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}$ to finish, right? But it's not clear. Note that, by applying Holder's inq, you would get $$ hat C , left|int_{B}Dh_rright| leq ||Dh_{r}||_{L^{q}}.$$
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:36














          $begingroup$
          If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
          $endgroup$
          – gerw
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:39




          $begingroup$
          If I am not mistaken, you have $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla h = r^{-n} , int_{B_r} nabla u(x) - nabla u(0)$. If $0$ is a Lebesgue point of $nabla u$, this goes to zero.
          $endgroup$
          – gerw
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:39












          $begingroup$
          No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:51




          $begingroup$
          No, it should be $int_B nabla h_r = r^{-n-1} , int_{B_r} nabla h $.
          $endgroup$
          – Hahn
          Dec 17 '18 at 8:51


















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