Uniform convergence of the exponential series on a bounded interval












2












$begingroup$



Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$

converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.




Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:




Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.




Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$

Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$



But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Dec 17 '18 at 22:05










  • $begingroup$
    oh wow, you're right.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
















2












$begingroup$



Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$

converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.




Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:




Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.




Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$

Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$



But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Dec 17 '18 at 22:05










  • $begingroup$
    oh wow, you're right.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:35














2












2








2





$begingroup$



Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$

converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.




Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:




Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.




Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$

Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$



But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$

converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.




Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:




Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.




Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$

Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$



But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.







real-analysis uniform-convergence






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 17 '18 at 21:48







Wesley Strik

















asked Dec 17 '18 at 21:31









Wesley StrikWesley Strik

2,209424




2,209424








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Dec 17 '18 at 22:05










  • $begingroup$
    oh wow, you're right.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:35














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Shalop
    Dec 17 '18 at 22:05










  • $begingroup$
    oh wow, you're right.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:15










  • $begingroup$
    Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:35








2




2




$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05




$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05












$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15




$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15












$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35




$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$

so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$

as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Why does the sum go to zero?
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 22:55










  • $begingroup$
    Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:03












  • $begingroup$
    Why not use Weierstrass M?
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:14










  • $begingroup$
    My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Wesley Strik
    Dec 17 '18 at 23:36



















1












$begingroup$

Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,



$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:



    Proof



    We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
    $$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
    These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
    $$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
    This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
    frac{x^
    k}
    {k!} $
    converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3












      $begingroup$

      Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
      $$
      leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
      $$

      so
      $$
      sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
      $$

      as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Why does the sum go to zero?
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 22:55










      • $begingroup$
        Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
        $endgroup$
        – Foobaz John
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:03












      • $begingroup$
        Why not use Weierstrass M?
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:14










      • $begingroup$
        My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
















      3












      $begingroup$

      Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
      $$
      leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
      $$

      so
      $$
      sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
      $$

      as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Why does the sum go to zero?
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 22:55










      • $begingroup$
        Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
        $endgroup$
        – Foobaz John
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:03












      • $begingroup$
        Why not use Weierstrass M?
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:14










      • $begingroup$
        My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:36














      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$

      Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
      $$
      leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
      $$

      so
      $$
      sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
      $$

      as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
      $$
      leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
      $$

      so
      $$
      sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
      $$

      as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:04

























      answered Dec 17 '18 at 21:51









      Foobaz JohnFoobaz John

      22.8k41452




      22.8k41452












      • $begingroup$
        Why does the sum go to zero?
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 22:55










      • $begingroup$
        Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
        $endgroup$
        – Foobaz John
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:03












      • $begingroup$
        Why not use Weierstrass M?
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:14










      • $begingroup$
        My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:36


















      • $begingroup$
        Why does the sum go to zero?
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 22:55










      • $begingroup$
        Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
        $endgroup$
        – Foobaz John
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:03












      • $begingroup$
        Why not use Weierstrass M?
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:14










      • $begingroup$
        My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
        $endgroup$
        – Wesley Strik
        Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
















      $begingroup$
      Why does the sum go to zero?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Dec 17 '18 at 22:55




      $begingroup$
      Why does the sum go to zero?
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Dec 17 '18 at 22:55












      $begingroup$
      Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
      $endgroup$
      – Foobaz John
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:03






      $begingroup$
      Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
      $endgroup$
      – Foobaz John
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:03














      $begingroup$
      Why not use Weierstrass M?
      $endgroup$
      – zhw.
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:14




      $begingroup$
      Why not use Weierstrass M?
      $endgroup$
      – zhw.
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:14












      $begingroup$
      My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:36




      $begingroup$
      My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Wesley Strik
      Dec 17 '18 at 23:36











      1












      $begingroup$

      Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,



      $|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,



        $|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,



          $|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,



          $|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:42

























          answered Dec 17 '18 at 23:39









          Mustafa SaidMustafa Said

          3,0611913




          3,0611913























              0












              $begingroup$

              As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:



              Proof



              We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
              $$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
              These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
              $$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
              This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
              frac{x^
              k}
              {k!} $
              converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:



                Proof



                We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
                $$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
                These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
                $$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
                This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
                frac{x^
                k}
                {k!} $
                converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:



                  Proof



                  We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
                  $$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
                  These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
                  $$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
                  This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
                  frac{x^
                  k}
                  {k!} $
                  converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:



                  Proof



                  We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
                  $$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
                  These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
                  $$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
                  This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
                  frac{x^
                  k}
                  {k!} $
                  converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:49

























                  answered Dec 17 '18 at 23:37









                  Wesley StrikWesley Strik

                  2,209424




                  2,209424






























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