Uniform convergence of the exponential series on a bounded interval
$begingroup$
Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$
converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.
Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:
Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.
Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$
converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.
Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:
Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.
Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$
converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.
Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:
Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.
Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.
real-analysis uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
Show: The function series
$$sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $$
converges uniformly on each bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$.
Discussion I think a good approach will be to deploy the Cauchy Criterion for uniform convergence. Our definition of the Cauchy Criterion from class ( variation on Kosmala theorem 8.4.6.) is as follows:
Let $ { f_n }$ be sequence of functions defined on $D$, if $$forall varepsilon >0, exists n_0, text{whenever } n,m geq n_0 qquad ||f_n -f_m ||_infty < varepsilon $$ (where $n>m$),
then $sum f_n$ is uniformly convergent.
Suppose we denote the function sequence of the sum by $f_n$, so for some arbitrary $n$ and $m$ we have that $n>m$ and we consider:
$$|f_n(x) -f_m(x) |=Bigg|sum _ {k=0} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} -sum _ {k=0} ^m
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|= Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
Now notice that we are dealing with a bounded interval, so there must exist some upper bound $B$, that is larger than any element $x$ in this interval. We can use this bound to estimate:
$$Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{x^
k}
{k!} Bigg| leq Bigg|sum _ {k=m+1} ^n
frac{B^
k}
{k!} Bigg|$$
But I don't quite know how to finish the proof $dots$, basically I want to be able to make this as small as possible ($varepsilon$), because then we will have shown uniform convergence, we then of course take the supremum in the end.
real-analysis uniform-convergence
real-analysis uniform-convergence
edited Dec 17 '18 at 21:48
Wesley Strik
asked Dec 17 '18 at 21:31
Wesley StrikWesley Strik
2,209424
2,209424
2
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
2
2
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$
so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$
as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,
$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:
Proof
We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
$$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
$$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $ converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$
so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$
as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$
so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$
as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$
so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$
as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.
$endgroup$
Let $A$ be the bounded interval and suppose that $|x|leq B$ for $xin A$. Note that for $xin A$
$$
leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^n leftlvertfrac{x^k}{k!}rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}
$$
so
$$
sup_{xin A}leftlvertsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{x^k}{k!} rightrvertleqsum_{k=m+1}^nfrac{B^k}{k!}to 0tag{1}
$$
as $m, nto infty$ since the last series converges. It follows that the partial sums of $sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{x^n}{n!}$ are uniformly Cauchy.
edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:04
answered Dec 17 '18 at 21:51
Foobaz JohnFoobaz John
22.8k41452
22.8k41452
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Why does the sum go to zero?
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 22:55
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Since $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{B^n}{n!}$ converges (to $exp(B)$) it follows that the partial sums of this series are Cauchy and hence the rightmost sum of $(1)$ goes to zero as $m, nto infty$.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 17 '18 at 23:03
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
Why not use Weierstrass M?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 17 '18 at 23:14
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
$begingroup$
My question was how I could fix this proof, Foobaz answered my question.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,
$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,
$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,
$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.
$endgroup$
Suppose that $|x| leq M$, then for any $N$,
$|sum_{n=1}^N frac{x^n}{n!}| leq sum_{n=1}^N frac{M^n}{n!} to e^M$. So the series converges uniformly by the Weierstrass M-test.
edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:42
answered Dec 17 '18 at 23:39
Mustafa SaidMustafa Said
3,0611913
3,0611913
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:
Proof
We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
$$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
$$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $ converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:
Proof
We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
$$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
$$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $ converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:
Proof
We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
$$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
$$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $ converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$
$endgroup$
As suggested, the same question tackled with Weierstrass:
Proof
We will use the Weierstrass M-Test as observed in Kosmala $8.4.11$. We will have to compare our sequence $f_n=frac{x^n}{n!}$ to some other sequence $M_n$. We have a bounded interval, so let us use this fact and pick the bound $B$ such that $|x| leq B$ for all $x$ in the interval, this leads to the comparison:
$$ |f_n(x)|=left| frac{x^n}{n!} right| = frac{|x^n|}{|n!|}=frac{|x|^n}{n!} leq frac{B^n}{n!}$$
These numbers are certainly nonnegative, we now need to verify that $sum M_n$ converges, where $M_n=frac{B^n}{n!} $, luckily in chapter $7$ we discussed that this representation is actually the exponential function, evaluated at the value $B$. We thus realise that:
$$ sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{B^n}{n!} = exp(B)= e^B. $$
This means that the series converges and we know exactly to which value. By the Weierstrass $M$-test we now know that $sum _ {k=0} ^infty
frac{x^
k}
{k!} $ converges uniformly and absolutely on the interval. $square$
edited Dec 17 '18 at 23:49
answered Dec 17 '18 at 23:37
Wesley StrikWesley Strik
2,209424
2,209424
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2
$begingroup$
Just use the weierstrass m-test. It’s basically Cauchy criterion but all the work is already done for you.
$endgroup$
– Shalop
Dec 17 '18 at 22:05
$begingroup$
oh wow, you're right.
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:15
$begingroup$
Weierstrass just kills this problem right off...
$endgroup$
– Wesley Strik
Dec 17 '18 at 23:35