Is this bounded convex set in $mathbb{R}^n$ closed?











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Suppose we have a bounded set $C subset mathbb{R}^n$ that is convex and non-empty.
And suppose the family of linear functions $(f_{x})_{x in mathbb{R}^n}$ given by $f_{x}: C rightarrow mathbb{R}$, $ f_{x}(c) = x.c$ for $c in C$ attain their maximum and minimum in the set $C$.



Does this mean $C$ is closed (and hence compact) in $mathbb{R}^n$?



My idea: I think this does imply $C$ is closed but I am not sure how to write my argument "properly". For every vector $x in mathbb{R}^n$, there is a point in $C$ that is "furthest" in the direction of $x$. Then because we are in a convex set we can just "join up all these points" and our set is closed. But how do I write this formally.



Remark: Also is it true that if a linear function on a convex set attains its maximum/minimum it does so on the boundary?










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  • Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 16:25










  • Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
    – LinAlg
    Nov 14 at 18:38












  • Yes, it is the inner product.
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 23:49















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Suppose we have a bounded set $C subset mathbb{R}^n$ that is convex and non-empty.
And suppose the family of linear functions $(f_{x})_{x in mathbb{R}^n}$ given by $f_{x}: C rightarrow mathbb{R}$, $ f_{x}(c) = x.c$ for $c in C$ attain their maximum and minimum in the set $C$.



Does this mean $C$ is closed (and hence compact) in $mathbb{R}^n$?



My idea: I think this does imply $C$ is closed but I am not sure how to write my argument "properly". For every vector $x in mathbb{R}^n$, there is a point in $C$ that is "furthest" in the direction of $x$. Then because we are in a convex set we can just "join up all these points" and our set is closed. But how do I write this formally.



Remark: Also is it true that if a linear function on a convex set attains its maximum/minimum it does so on the boundary?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 16:25










  • Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
    – LinAlg
    Nov 14 at 18:38












  • Yes, it is the inner product.
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 23:49













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Suppose we have a bounded set $C subset mathbb{R}^n$ that is convex and non-empty.
And suppose the family of linear functions $(f_{x})_{x in mathbb{R}^n}$ given by $f_{x}: C rightarrow mathbb{R}$, $ f_{x}(c) = x.c$ for $c in C$ attain their maximum and minimum in the set $C$.



Does this mean $C$ is closed (and hence compact) in $mathbb{R}^n$?



My idea: I think this does imply $C$ is closed but I am not sure how to write my argument "properly". For every vector $x in mathbb{R}^n$, there is a point in $C$ that is "furthest" in the direction of $x$. Then because we are in a convex set we can just "join up all these points" and our set is closed. But how do I write this formally.



Remark: Also is it true that if a linear function on a convex set attains its maximum/minimum it does so on the boundary?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose we have a bounded set $C subset mathbb{R}^n$ that is convex and non-empty.
And suppose the family of linear functions $(f_{x})_{x in mathbb{R}^n}$ given by $f_{x}: C rightarrow mathbb{R}$, $ f_{x}(c) = x.c$ for $c in C$ attain their maximum and minimum in the set $C$.



Does this mean $C$ is closed (and hence compact) in $mathbb{R}^n$?



My idea: I think this does imply $C$ is closed but I am not sure how to write my argument "properly". For every vector $x in mathbb{R}^n$, there is a point in $C$ that is "furthest" in the direction of $x$. Then because we are in a convex set we can just "join up all these points" and our set is closed. But how do I write this formally.



Remark: Also is it true that if a linear function on a convex set attains its maximum/minimum it does so on the boundary?







convex-analysis convex-optimization compactness






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edited Nov 14 at 21:46

























asked Nov 14 at 16:25









Namch96

449314




449314












  • Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 16:25










  • Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
    – LinAlg
    Nov 14 at 18:38












  • Yes, it is the inner product.
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 23:49


















  • Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 16:25










  • Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
    – LinAlg
    Nov 14 at 18:38












  • Yes, it is the inner product.
    – Namch96
    Nov 14 at 23:49
















Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
– Namch96
Nov 14 at 16:25




Note that the argument used in this very interesting question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1434741/… may be of some help.....
– Namch96
Nov 14 at 16:25












Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
– LinAlg
Nov 14 at 18:38






Is $x.c$ the inner product between $x$ and $c$? The answer to the last question is yes due to the maximum principle.
– LinAlg
Nov 14 at 18:38














Yes, it is the inner product.
– Namch96
Nov 14 at 23:49




Yes, it is the inner product.
– Namch96
Nov 14 at 23:49










1 Answer
1






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up vote
2
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accepted










I found a counterexample as I was trying to construct a proof. Let me explain my thought process.



Let $x'$ be on the boundary and assume $x'notin C$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, it has a separating hyperplane. Let $c$ be perpendicular to that plane and consider the function $f(x)=c^Tx$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, function values can get arbitrarily close to $c^Tx'$, but by construction, cannot exceed $c^Tx'$ (the separating hyperplane is an isocurve). Since $f$ attains its maximum on $C$, there is a point $x^* in C$ for which $c^Tx' = c^Tx^*$. So, $x^*$ and $x'$ share the same separating hyperplane.



The next step in my proof would be to construct a point on the other side of $x'$ that is in $C$ and reach a contradiction with convexity. This is where I had the aha moment.



Consider the following set, which is a closed rectangle and the first quadrant of a closed circle, minus the point where the rectangle meets the circle.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Very nice, thanks!
    – Namch96
    Nov 15 at 14:15










  • Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
    – JonathanZ
    Nov 17 at 16:10













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oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I found a counterexample as I was trying to construct a proof. Let me explain my thought process.



Let $x'$ be on the boundary and assume $x'notin C$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, it has a separating hyperplane. Let $c$ be perpendicular to that plane and consider the function $f(x)=c^Tx$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, function values can get arbitrarily close to $c^Tx'$, but by construction, cannot exceed $c^Tx'$ (the separating hyperplane is an isocurve). Since $f$ attains its maximum on $C$, there is a point $x^* in C$ for which $c^Tx' = c^Tx^*$. So, $x^*$ and $x'$ share the same separating hyperplane.



The next step in my proof would be to construct a point on the other side of $x'$ that is in $C$ and reach a contradiction with convexity. This is where I had the aha moment.



Consider the following set, which is a closed rectangle and the first quadrant of a closed circle, minus the point where the rectangle meets the circle.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Very nice, thanks!
    – Namch96
    Nov 15 at 14:15










  • Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
    – JonathanZ
    Nov 17 at 16:10

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I found a counterexample as I was trying to construct a proof. Let me explain my thought process.



Let $x'$ be on the boundary and assume $x'notin C$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, it has a separating hyperplane. Let $c$ be perpendicular to that plane and consider the function $f(x)=c^Tx$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, function values can get arbitrarily close to $c^Tx'$, but by construction, cannot exceed $c^Tx'$ (the separating hyperplane is an isocurve). Since $f$ attains its maximum on $C$, there is a point $x^* in C$ for which $c^Tx' = c^Tx^*$. So, $x^*$ and $x'$ share the same separating hyperplane.



The next step in my proof would be to construct a point on the other side of $x'$ that is in $C$ and reach a contradiction with convexity. This is where I had the aha moment.



Consider the following set, which is a closed rectangle and the first quadrant of a closed circle, minus the point where the rectangle meets the circle.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Very nice, thanks!
    – Namch96
    Nov 15 at 14:15










  • Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
    – JonathanZ
    Nov 17 at 16:10















up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






I found a counterexample as I was trying to construct a proof. Let me explain my thought process.



Let $x'$ be on the boundary and assume $x'notin C$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, it has a separating hyperplane. Let $c$ be perpendicular to that plane and consider the function $f(x)=c^Tx$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, function values can get arbitrarily close to $c^Tx'$, but by construction, cannot exceed $c^Tx'$ (the separating hyperplane is an isocurve). Since $f$ attains its maximum on $C$, there is a point $x^* in C$ for which $c^Tx' = c^Tx^*$. So, $x^*$ and $x'$ share the same separating hyperplane.



The next step in my proof would be to construct a point on the other side of $x'$ that is in $C$ and reach a contradiction with convexity. This is where I had the aha moment.



Consider the following set, which is a closed rectangle and the first quadrant of a closed circle, minus the point where the rectangle meets the circle.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer












I found a counterexample as I was trying to construct a proof. Let me explain my thought process.



Let $x'$ be on the boundary and assume $x'notin C$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, it has a separating hyperplane. Let $c$ be perpendicular to that plane and consider the function $f(x)=c^Tx$. Since $x'$ is on the boundary, function values can get arbitrarily close to $c^Tx'$, but by construction, cannot exceed $c^Tx'$ (the separating hyperplane is an isocurve). Since $f$ attains its maximum on $C$, there is a point $x^* in C$ for which $c^Tx' = c^Tx^*$. So, $x^*$ and $x'$ share the same separating hyperplane.



The next step in my proof would be to construct a point on the other side of $x'$ that is in $C$ and reach a contradiction with convexity. This is where I had the aha moment.



Consider the following set, which is a closed rectangle and the first quadrant of a closed circle, minus the point where the rectangle meets the circle.



enter image description here







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 15 at 2:02









LinAlg

7,6241520




7,6241520












  • Very nice, thanks!
    – Namch96
    Nov 15 at 14:15










  • Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
    – JonathanZ
    Nov 17 at 16:10




















  • Very nice, thanks!
    – Namch96
    Nov 15 at 14:15










  • Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
    – JonathanZ
    Nov 17 at 16:10


















Very nice, thanks!
– Namch96
Nov 15 at 14:15




Very nice, thanks!
– Namch96
Nov 15 at 14:15












Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
– JonathanZ
Nov 17 at 16:10






Yes, nice. I had gotten to the point of thinking about separating hyperplanes and started to doubt the claim but couldn't come up with a counterexample. Yours is excellent.
– JonathanZ
Nov 17 at 16:10




















 

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