How do i show following equality [closed]












2












$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be monotone on $[a,b]$.Show that there exists $c∈[a,b]$ such that



$$int_a^b f(x)dx = f(a)(c-a) + f(b)(b-c) $$



I want to show it from basics and by using first intermediate value theorem for integrals without directly using second intermediate value theorem for integrals .










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138 Dec 3 '18 at 14:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your $f$ continuous as well?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:39










  • $begingroup$
    @AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:46


















2












$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be monotone on $[a,b]$.Show that there exists $c∈[a,b]$ such that



$$int_a^b f(x)dx = f(a)(c-a) + f(b)(b-c) $$



I want to show it from basics and by using first intermediate value theorem for integrals without directly using second intermediate value theorem for integrals .










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138 Dec 3 '18 at 14:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your $f$ continuous as well?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:39










  • $begingroup$
    @AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:46
















2












2








2


4



$begingroup$


Let $f(x)$ be monotone on $[a,b]$.Show that there exists $c∈[a,b]$ such that



$$int_a^b f(x)dx = f(a)(c-a) + f(b)(b-c) $$



I want to show it from basics and by using first intermediate value theorem for integrals without directly using second intermediate value theorem for integrals .










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $f(x)$ be monotone on $[a,b]$.Show that there exists $c∈[a,b]$ such that



$$int_a^b f(x)dx = f(a)(c-a) + f(b)(b-c) $$



I want to show it from basics and by using first intermediate value theorem for integrals without directly using second intermediate value theorem for integrals .







real-analysis riemann-integration






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 2 '18 at 8:23









BhowmickBhowmick

1438




1438




closed as off-topic by Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138 Dec 3 '18 at 14:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138 Dec 3 '18 at 14:48


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Did, Cesareo, José Carlos Santos, Lord_Farin, user10354138

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your $f$ continuous as well?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:39










  • $begingroup$
    @AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:46
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
    $endgroup$
    – Nick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:36








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is your $f$ continuous as well?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:39










  • $begingroup$
    @AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 8:46










1




1




$begingroup$
I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
$endgroup$
– Nick
Dec 2 '18 at 8:36






$begingroup$
I feel the $delta (uv) = udelta v + vdelta u$ is somehow involved here.
$endgroup$
– Nick
Dec 2 '18 at 8:36






1




1




$begingroup$
Is your $f$ continuous as well?
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Dec 2 '18 at 8:39




$begingroup$
Is your $f$ continuous as well?
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Dec 2 '18 at 8:39












$begingroup$
@AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 8:46






$begingroup$
@AnuragA I think we can make two cases one in which $f$ is continuous and other in which it is not .Proving for continuous case might give us hint for non-continuous case .
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 8:46












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let $g(x)=f(a)(x-a)+f(b)(b-x)$ and $f(x)$ is an increasing function, $aleq xleq b$. If we have
$$
g(a)=f(b)(b-a)>int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x>f(a)(b-a)=g(b)
$$

Since $g(x)$ is continous, there exists $cin(a,b)$ s.t.
$$
g(c)=int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x.
$$

Else, WLOG, if
$$
int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=f(a)(b-a)
$$

we can still find a point $cin (a,b)$ because there are infinitely many points s.t. $f(x)=f(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
    $endgroup$
    – platty
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:53










  • $begingroup$
    @platty Thanks.you are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 10:03


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Let $g(x)=f(a)(x-a)+f(b)(b-x)$ and $f(x)$ is an increasing function, $aleq xleq b$. If we have
$$
g(a)=f(b)(b-a)>int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x>f(a)(b-a)=g(b)
$$

Since $g(x)$ is continous, there exists $cin(a,b)$ s.t.
$$
g(c)=int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x.
$$

Else, WLOG, if
$$
int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=f(a)(b-a)
$$

we can still find a point $cin (a,b)$ because there are infinitely many points s.t. $f(x)=f(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
    $endgroup$
    – platty
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:53










  • $begingroup$
    @platty Thanks.you are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 10:03
















1












$begingroup$

Let $g(x)=f(a)(x-a)+f(b)(b-x)$ and $f(x)$ is an increasing function, $aleq xleq b$. If we have
$$
g(a)=f(b)(b-a)>int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x>f(a)(b-a)=g(b)
$$

Since $g(x)$ is continous, there exists $cin(a,b)$ s.t.
$$
g(c)=int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x.
$$

Else, WLOG, if
$$
int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=f(a)(b-a)
$$

we can still find a point $cin (a,b)$ because there are infinitely many points s.t. $f(x)=f(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
    $endgroup$
    – platty
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:53










  • $begingroup$
    @platty Thanks.you are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 10:03














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Let $g(x)=f(a)(x-a)+f(b)(b-x)$ and $f(x)$ is an increasing function, $aleq xleq b$. If we have
$$
g(a)=f(b)(b-a)>int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x>f(a)(b-a)=g(b)
$$

Since $g(x)$ is continous, there exists $cin(a,b)$ s.t.
$$
g(c)=int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x.
$$

Else, WLOG, if
$$
int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=f(a)(b-a)
$$

we can still find a point $cin (a,b)$ because there are infinitely many points s.t. $f(x)=f(a)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $g(x)=f(a)(x-a)+f(b)(b-x)$ and $f(x)$ is an increasing function, $aleq xleq b$. If we have
$$
g(a)=f(b)(b-a)>int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x>f(a)(b-a)=g(b)
$$

Since $g(x)$ is continous, there exists $cin(a,b)$ s.t.
$$
g(c)=int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x.
$$

Else, WLOG, if
$$
int_a^bf(x)mathrm{d}x=f(a)(b-a)
$$

we can still find a point $cin (a,b)$ because there are infinitely many points s.t. $f(x)=f(a)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 2 '18 at 9:59

























answered Dec 2 '18 at 9:22









yahooyahoo

606412




606412












  • $begingroup$
    We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
    $endgroup$
    – platty
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:53










  • $begingroup$
    @platty Thanks.you are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 10:03


















  • $begingroup$
    We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:38






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
    $endgroup$
    – platty
    Dec 2 '18 at 9:53










  • $begingroup$
    @platty Thanks.you are right .
    $endgroup$
    – Bhowmick
    Dec 2 '18 at 10:03
















$begingroup$
We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 9:38




$begingroup$
We can solve like this only when $f(x)$ is continuous
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 9:38




1




1




$begingroup$
In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 2 '18 at 9:53




$begingroup$
In general, you can show that $(b-a) f(a) leq int_a^b f(x) dx leq (b-a) f(b)$ by using the monotonicity of $f$ and the definition of the integral. Then picking $c$ is essentially just a matter of making the weighted average work.
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 2 '18 at 9:53












$begingroup$
@platty Thanks.you are right .
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 10:03




$begingroup$
@platty Thanks.you are right .
$endgroup$
– Bhowmick
Dec 2 '18 at 10:03



Popular posts from this blog

Plaza Victoria

Puebla de Zaragoza

Musa