Orthogonal unit vector in spherical coordinates












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$begingroup$


A particle is traveling in the direction of the positive $z$ axis, until eventually, it is deflected. The new direction is given by an azimuthal angle (w.r.t. the positive $z$ axis) $theta$ and a polar angle (within the $x$-$y$ plane) $phi$. The new direction is given by $vec u = (cos phi sin theta, sin phi sin theta, cos theta)$, having length 1.



I am looking for an orthogonal direction $vec v$ to $vec u$, having the same length 1.



Is there a direct expression in $theta$ and $phi$ that yields a normalized $vec v$, without having to compute some intermediate vector and diving all entries of said vector by its norm?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:48










  • $begingroup$
    @Randall no, any one is fine.
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:52










  • $begingroup$
    I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:12


















0












$begingroup$


A particle is traveling in the direction of the positive $z$ axis, until eventually, it is deflected. The new direction is given by an azimuthal angle (w.r.t. the positive $z$ axis) $theta$ and a polar angle (within the $x$-$y$ plane) $phi$. The new direction is given by $vec u = (cos phi sin theta, sin phi sin theta, cos theta)$, having length 1.



I am looking for an orthogonal direction $vec v$ to $vec u$, having the same length 1.



Is there a direct expression in $theta$ and $phi$ that yields a normalized $vec v$, without having to compute some intermediate vector and diving all entries of said vector by its norm?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:48










  • $begingroup$
    @Randall no, any one is fine.
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:52










  • $begingroup$
    I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:12
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


A particle is traveling in the direction of the positive $z$ axis, until eventually, it is deflected. The new direction is given by an azimuthal angle (w.r.t. the positive $z$ axis) $theta$ and a polar angle (within the $x$-$y$ plane) $phi$. The new direction is given by $vec u = (cos phi sin theta, sin phi sin theta, cos theta)$, having length 1.



I am looking for an orthogonal direction $vec v$ to $vec u$, having the same length 1.



Is there a direct expression in $theta$ and $phi$ that yields a normalized $vec v$, without having to compute some intermediate vector and diving all entries of said vector by its norm?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




A particle is traveling in the direction of the positive $z$ axis, until eventually, it is deflected. The new direction is given by an azimuthal angle (w.r.t. the positive $z$ axis) $theta$ and a polar angle (within the $x$-$y$ plane) $phi$. The new direction is given by $vec u = (cos phi sin theta, sin phi sin theta, cos theta)$, having length 1.



I am looking for an orthogonal direction $vec v$ to $vec u$, having the same length 1.



Is there a direct expression in $theta$ and $phi$ that yields a normalized $vec v$, without having to compute some intermediate vector and diving all entries of said vector by its norm?







vectors angle






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 28 '18 at 12:41









bersbers

260214




260214












  • $begingroup$
    There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:48










  • $begingroup$
    @Randall no, any one is fine.
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:52










  • $begingroup$
    I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:12




















  • $begingroup$
    There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:48










  • $begingroup$
    @Randall no, any one is fine.
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 12:52










  • $begingroup$
    I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
    $endgroup$
    – bers
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:12


















$begingroup$
There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
$endgroup$
– Randall
Nov 28 '18 at 12:48




$begingroup$
There are infinitely many. Do you care which one?
$endgroup$
– Randall
Nov 28 '18 at 12:48












$begingroup$
@Randall no, any one is fine.
$endgroup$
– bers
Nov 28 '18 at 12:52




$begingroup$
@Randall no, any one is fine.
$endgroup$
– bers
Nov 28 '18 at 12:52












$begingroup$
I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
$endgroup$
– bers
Nov 28 '18 at 13:12






$begingroup$
I feel $(sin phi, -cosphi, 0)$ is an easy answer. Or am I missing some edge case there, such as $theta in {0, pi}$?
$endgroup$
– bers
Nov 28 '18 at 13:12












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