Exist $epsilon>0$ such that $P(X>epsilon)>0$












0












$begingroup$


I have the next exercice:



Let $(X_n)_n$ a sequence of random variables i.i.d with law $X$, where $Xge 0$ almost surely et $P(X>0)>0$.




  1. Show that exists $epsilon ge 0$ such that $P(X>epsilon)>0$.

  2. Let $A_n={X_nge epsilon}$. What can be said about the set $limsup A_n$?


My ideas:





  1. Let $B_k={Xgefrac{1}{k}}$



    $bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k={X>0}$



    $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)ge P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)=P(X>0)>0$, i.e exist $min mathbb{N}$ such that $P(Xgefrac{1}{m})=P(B_m)>0$.




Where $epsilon =frac{1}{m}$.



My idea is correct? and they could give me suggestions for the second item.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:43
















0












$begingroup$


I have the next exercice:



Let $(X_n)_n$ a sequence of random variables i.i.d with law $X$, where $Xge 0$ almost surely et $P(X>0)>0$.




  1. Show that exists $epsilon ge 0$ such that $P(X>epsilon)>0$.

  2. Let $A_n={X_nge epsilon}$. What can be said about the set $limsup A_n$?


My ideas:





  1. Let $B_k={Xgefrac{1}{k}}$



    $bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k={X>0}$



    $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)ge P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)=P(X>0)>0$, i.e exist $min mathbb{N}$ such that $P(Xgefrac{1}{m})=P(B_m)>0$.




Where $epsilon =frac{1}{m}$.



My idea is correct? and they could give me suggestions for the second item.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:43














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have the next exercice:



Let $(X_n)_n$ a sequence of random variables i.i.d with law $X$, where $Xge 0$ almost surely et $P(X>0)>0$.




  1. Show that exists $epsilon ge 0$ such that $P(X>epsilon)>0$.

  2. Let $A_n={X_nge epsilon}$. What can be said about the set $limsup A_n$?


My ideas:





  1. Let $B_k={Xgefrac{1}{k}}$



    $bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k={X>0}$



    $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)ge P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)=P(X>0)>0$, i.e exist $min mathbb{N}$ such that $P(Xgefrac{1}{m})=P(B_m)>0$.




Where $epsilon =frac{1}{m}$.



My idea is correct? and they could give me suggestions for the second item.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have the next exercice:



Let $(X_n)_n$ a sequence of random variables i.i.d with law $X$, where $Xge 0$ almost surely et $P(X>0)>0$.




  1. Show that exists $epsilon ge 0$ such that $P(X>epsilon)>0$.

  2. Let $A_n={X_nge epsilon}$. What can be said about the set $limsup A_n$?


My ideas:





  1. Let $B_k={Xgefrac{1}{k}}$



    $bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k={X>0}$



    $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)ge P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)=P(X>0)>0$, i.e exist $min mathbb{N}$ such that $P(Xgefrac{1}{m})=P(B_m)>0$.




Where $epsilon =frac{1}{m}$.



My idea is correct? and they could give me suggestions for the second item.







probability-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 13 '18 at 22:44







Alex Pozo

















asked Dec 13 '18 at 22:36









Alex PozoAlex Pozo

515214




515214












  • $begingroup$
    The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:43


















  • $begingroup$
    The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
    $endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:43
















$begingroup$
The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 22:43




$begingroup$
The $B_k$ are not disjoint so the equality between the sum of probabilities and the probability of the union does not hold. Replace it with an inequality, and your reasoning is sound.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 22:43










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Hint



For the second question apply the Borel cantelli lemma, i.e. compute $sum P(A_n)$. Is it finite or infinite? What does it tell you about $P(limsup A_n)$?



Your proof for one does not work. It is not true that $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)=P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)$. It is true by measure continuity that $sup P(B_k)=lim P(B_k)=P(X>0)>0$. Hence there exists at least one $k$ such that $P(B_k)>0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Pozo
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:56












  • $begingroup$
    By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 13 '18 at 23:07













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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Hint



For the second question apply the Borel cantelli lemma, i.e. compute $sum P(A_n)$. Is it finite or infinite? What does it tell you about $P(limsup A_n)$?



Your proof for one does not work. It is not true that $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)=P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)$. It is true by measure continuity that $sup P(B_k)=lim P(B_k)=P(X>0)>0$. Hence there exists at least one $k$ such that $P(B_k)>0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Pozo
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:56












  • $begingroup$
    By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 13 '18 at 23:07


















1












$begingroup$

Hint



For the second question apply the Borel cantelli lemma, i.e. compute $sum P(A_n)$. Is it finite or infinite? What does it tell you about $P(limsup A_n)$?



Your proof for one does not work. It is not true that $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)=P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)$. It is true by measure continuity that $sup P(B_k)=lim P(B_k)=P(X>0)>0$. Hence there exists at least one $k$ such that $P(B_k)>0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Pozo
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:56












  • $begingroup$
    By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 13 '18 at 23:07
















1












1








1





$begingroup$

Hint



For the second question apply the Borel cantelli lemma, i.e. compute $sum P(A_n)$. Is it finite or infinite? What does it tell you about $P(limsup A_n)$?



Your proof for one does not work. It is not true that $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)=P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)$. It is true by measure continuity that $sup P(B_k)=lim P(B_k)=P(X>0)>0$. Hence there exists at least one $k$ such that $P(B_k)>0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Hint



For the second question apply the Borel cantelli lemma, i.e. compute $sum P(A_n)$. Is it finite or infinite? What does it tell you about $P(limsup A_n)$?



Your proof for one does not work. It is not true that $sum_{k=1}^{infty}P(B_k)=P(bigcup_{k=1}^{infty}B_k)$. It is true by measure continuity that $sup P(B_k)=lim P(B_k)=P(X>0)>0$. Hence there exists at least one $k$ such that $P(B_k)>0$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 13 '18 at 22:45









Foobaz JohnFoobaz John

22.3k41452




22.3k41452












  • $begingroup$
    I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Pozo
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:56












  • $begingroup$
    By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 13 '18 at 23:07




















  • $begingroup$
    I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Pozo
    Dec 13 '18 at 22:56












  • $begingroup$
    By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Foobaz John
    Dec 13 '18 at 23:07


















$begingroup$
I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
$endgroup$
– Alex Pozo
Dec 13 '18 at 22:56






$begingroup$
I found that $sum P(A_n)$ is finite and by Borel Cantelli Lemma $P(limsup A_n) =0$
$endgroup$
– Alex Pozo
Dec 13 '18 at 22:56














$begingroup$
By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 13 '18 at 23:07






$begingroup$
By the proof of a) we know that there exists $epsilon>0$ such that $P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$. In particular $P(A_n)=P(X_ngeq epsilon)=P(Xgeq epsilon)>0$, so the sum diverges (as $sum P(A_n)=sum P(Xgeq epsilon)=infty$) By Borel cantelli, $P(limsup A_n)=1$ since the $X_i$ are independent.
$endgroup$
– Foobaz John
Dec 13 '18 at 23:07




















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