Square root of $-I_2$












4












$begingroup$


I would like to get all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$.



To start with, I know that
$N_0=begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
1 & 0
end{bmatrix}$
works, and we can prove that every matrices $N$ that are similar to $N_0$ work.



$i.e.$ Let $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ if $exists P in mathrm{GL}_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N = PN_0P^{-1}$, then $N^2 = -I_2$.



My question is, is the converse true?



Are all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$ similar to $N_0$?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about diagonalization already ?
    $endgroup$
    – LeoDucas
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:13
















4












$begingroup$


I would like to get all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$.



To start with, I know that
$N_0=begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
1 & 0
end{bmatrix}$
works, and we can prove that every matrices $N$ that are similar to $N_0$ work.



$i.e.$ Let $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ if $exists P in mathrm{GL}_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N = PN_0P^{-1}$, then $N^2 = -I_2$.



My question is, is the converse true?



Are all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$ similar to $N_0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about diagonalization already ?
    $endgroup$
    – LeoDucas
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:13














4












4








4


3



$begingroup$


I would like to get all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$.



To start with, I know that
$N_0=begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
1 & 0
end{bmatrix}$
works, and we can prove that every matrices $N$ that are similar to $N_0$ work.



$i.e.$ Let $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ if $exists P in mathrm{GL}_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N = PN_0P^{-1}$, then $N^2 = -I_2$.



My question is, is the converse true?



Are all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$ similar to $N_0$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I would like to get all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$.



To start with, I know that
$N_0=begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
1 & 0
end{bmatrix}$
works, and we can prove that every matrices $N$ that are similar to $N_0$ work.



$i.e.$ Let $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ if $exists P in mathrm{GL}_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N = PN_0P^{-1}$, then $N^2 = -I_2$.



My question is, is the converse true?



Are all matrices $N in M_2(mathbb R)$ such that $N^2 = -I_2$ similar to $N_0$?







linear-algebra matrices






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 24 '18 at 20:21







Euler Pythagoras

















asked Oct 27 '18 at 20:47









Euler PythagorasEuler Pythagoras

54212




54212








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about diagonalization already ?
    $endgroup$
    – LeoDucas
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:13














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know about diagonalization already ?
    $endgroup$
    – LeoDucas
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
    $endgroup$
    – anomaly
    Oct 27 '18 at 21:13








1




1




$begingroup$
Do you know about diagonalization already ?
$endgroup$
– LeoDucas
Oct 27 '18 at 21:02




$begingroup$
Do you know about diagonalization already ?
$endgroup$
– LeoDucas
Oct 27 '18 at 21:02




1




1




$begingroup$
Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
$endgroup$
– anomaly
Oct 27 '18 at 21:13




$begingroup$
Use Jordan normal form at the fact that $-1$ is central.
$endgroup$
– anomaly
Oct 27 '18 at 21:13










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

For $A, B in M_n(mathbb{C})$, write $A sim B$ if $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{C}$.



Assume that $N in M_2(mathbb{R})$ satisfies $N^2 + I_2 = 0$. Then the minimal polynomial of $N$ is $X^2+1$ and this factors into distinct linear factors in $mathbb{C}$. So $N$ is diagonalizable in $mathbb{C}$ with eigenvalues $i$ and $-i$, i.e., $N sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i) $ in $mathbb{C}$. By the same reason, $N_0 sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i)$ and hence $N sim N_0$. Then the desired claim follows from the following proposition.




Proposition. Let $A, B in M_n(mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $A sim B$. Then $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$.




Proof. Choose $P in mathrm{GL}_n(mathbb{C})$ such that $A = PBP^{-1}$. Write $P = Q+iR$ for $Q, R in M_n(mathbb{R})$ and define $P_z = Q + zR$ for $z in mathbb{C}$.




  1. Since $AQ = QB$ and $AR = RB$, we have $AP_z = P_z B$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$,


  2. $det(P_i) = det(P) neq 0$, hence $det(P_z)$ is a non-zero polynomial in $mathbb{R}[z]$.



So we can find $x in mathbb{R}$ such that $P_x$ is invertible. Then $P_x in operatorname{GL}_2(mathbb{R})$ and $A = P_x BP_x^{-1}$, hence $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$ as required. $Box$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Euler Pythagoras
    Oct 28 '18 at 11:30



















2












$begingroup$

It's not very hard to find all matrices $N in M_2(Bbb R)$ such that



$N^2 = -I; tag 1$



for let



$N = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}; tag 2$



then



$begin{bmatrix} n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} & n_{11}n_{12} + n_{12} n_{22} \ n_{21}n_{11} + n_{22} n_{21} & n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix} = N^2 = -I; tag 3$



therefore,



$n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} = n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 = -1, tag 4$



$(n_{11} + n_{22})n_{12} = (n_{11} + n_{22})n_{21} = 0; tag 5$



we see from this equation that



$text{Tr}(N) = n_{11} + n_{22} tag 6$



is a determinative, classifying factor; if



$text{Tr}(N) ne 0, tag 7$



then from (5),



$n_{21} = n_{12} = 0, tag 8$



whence from (4),



$n_{11}^2 = n_{22}^2 = -1; tag 9$



clearly there are no real solutions in this case (7); thus we take



$text{Tr}(N) = 0, tag 8$



and see that



$-n_{22} = n_{11} = alpha in Bbb R; tag 9$



now from (4),



$n_{12}n_{21} ne 0, tag{10}$



implying



$n_{12} ne 0 ne n_{21}; tag{11}$



thus we may write



$n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{n_{12}}; tag{12}$



if we set



$n_{12} = beta ne 0, tag{13}$



then we may write



$n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta}; tag{14}$



taken together, (9)-(14) provide a parameterized family of $2 times 2$ matrices



$N(alpha, beta) = begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} tag{15}$



such that



$N^2(alpha, beta) = -I. tag{16}$



It is easy to see that the set of admissible parameters is characterized by



$alpha in Bbb R, ; 0 ne beta in Bbb R. tag{17}$



Careful scrutiny of the above argument reveals that we have in fact demonstrated that every matrix in $M_2(Bbb R)$ satisfying (1) is of the form (15); therefore our parametric representation (15) is complete.



Since any $2 times 2$ real matrix satisfting (1) is of the form (15), and we see that



$text{Tr}(N(alpha, beta)) = alpha + (-alpha) = 0, tag{18}$



and



$det(N(alpha, beta)) = -alpha^2 + beta dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} = 1, tag{19}$



and thus all have characteristic polynomial



$chi_N(x) = x^2 + 1, tag{20}$



we may affirm the the eigenvalues of any $N(alpha, beta)$ are $pm i$, and the eigenvectors satisfy



$begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} = pm ibegin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}, ; v_1, v_2 in Bbb C; tag{21}$



then with eigenvalue $i$,



$alpha v_1 + beta v_2 = i v_1, tag{22}$



which since $beta ne 0$ yields



$v_2 = dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} v_1; tag{23}$



since eigenvectors are only determined up to a scaling factor, we can in fact take $v_1 = 1$ and then



$ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{24}$



since $N(alpha, beta)$ is a real matrix it follows that the eigenvector associated with $-i$ is



$overline{ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}} = begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ bar v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{- i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{25}$



the diagonalizing matrix is thus



$V = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & dfrac{-i - alpha}{beta} end{bmatrix}, tag{26}$



with



$det(V) = -dfrac{2i}{beta}, tag{27}$



we have



$V^{-1} = dfrac{beta i}{2}begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ -i - alpha}{beta} & -1 \ -dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ 1 - ialpha}{2} & -dfrac{beta i}{2} \ -dfrac{-1 - ialpha}{2} & dfrac{beta i}{2} end{bmatrix}; tag{28}$



therefore



$V^{-1} N(alpha, beta)V = begin{bmatrix} i & 0 \ 0 & -i end{bmatrix}; tag{29}$



finally, $N$ from (1) itself may be so represented via application of the above formulas; therefore any $N(alpha, beta)$ is similar to $N$, since each is similar to the diagonal matrix $text{diag}(i, -i)$.



We have thus reached an affirmative answer to our OP Euler Pythagoras' closing question, even if our path has been a tad on the round-about side. We did however discover the formula (15) for solutions to (1), which I think is pretty cool.






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$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
    $endgroup$
    – mathreadler
    Oct 28 '18 at 7:55



















1












$begingroup$

Something more general holds. If $f(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}t^{n-1} + dots + a_1t + a_0$ is a monic polynomial then the matrix



$$ C_f = begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_0 \
1 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_1 \
0 & 1 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_2 \
0 & 0 & 1 & dots & 0 & -a_3 \
vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots & vdots \
0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 1 & -a_{n-1}
end{pmatrix}
$$



is called the companion matrix of $f$. A simple calculation shows that $C_f$ satisfies $f$, meaning that
$$ f(C_f) = C_f^n + a_{n-1}C_f^{n-1} + dots + a_1 C_f + a_0I = 0 $$



Moreover, if $C_f$ satisfies any other polynomial equation $g(C_f) = 0$ then $f$ divides $g$. We say that $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $C_f$.



There's a result in algebra called rational normal form (or "canonical form") that says that every matrix is similar to a block diagonal matrix of companion matrices. Specifically,




If $A$ is a matrix that satisfies a polynomial $f$ (for example its characteristic polynomial) then $A$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are companion matrices. I.e. $$A sim operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r}).$$
Moreover:





  1. $g_i$ divides $f$ for $i = 1, dots, r$

  2. We can make it so that $g_i$ divides $g_{i + 1}$ for $i = 1,dots,r-1$

  3. If 2. holds, you can check that $g_r$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$ in the sense described above.




One idea here is that if $h$ is any polynomial then
$$h(operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r})) = operatorname{diag}(h(C_{g_1}),dots,h(C_{g_r})). $$
This is true generally for block-diagonal matrices.



The point is that for the polynomial $f(t) = t^2 + 1$ the only real factors of $f$ are $1$ and $t^2 + 1$. On the other hand, $C_1$ is the empty $0times 0$ matrix which just leaves us with $C_{t^2 + 1}$ is exactly what you called $N_0$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes









    4












    $begingroup$

    For $A, B in M_n(mathbb{C})$, write $A sim B$ if $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{C}$.



    Assume that $N in M_2(mathbb{R})$ satisfies $N^2 + I_2 = 0$. Then the minimal polynomial of $N$ is $X^2+1$ and this factors into distinct linear factors in $mathbb{C}$. So $N$ is diagonalizable in $mathbb{C}$ with eigenvalues $i$ and $-i$, i.e., $N sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i) $ in $mathbb{C}$. By the same reason, $N_0 sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i)$ and hence $N sim N_0$. Then the desired claim follows from the following proposition.




    Proposition. Let $A, B in M_n(mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $A sim B$. Then $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$.




    Proof. Choose $P in mathrm{GL}_n(mathbb{C})$ such that $A = PBP^{-1}$. Write $P = Q+iR$ for $Q, R in M_n(mathbb{R})$ and define $P_z = Q + zR$ for $z in mathbb{C}$.




    1. Since $AQ = QB$ and $AR = RB$, we have $AP_z = P_z B$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$,


    2. $det(P_i) = det(P) neq 0$, hence $det(P_z)$ is a non-zero polynomial in $mathbb{R}[z]$.



    So we can find $x in mathbb{R}$ such that $P_x$ is invertible. Then $P_x in operatorname{GL}_2(mathbb{R})$ and $A = P_x BP_x^{-1}$, hence $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$ as required. $Box$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Euler Pythagoras
      Oct 28 '18 at 11:30
















    4












    $begingroup$

    For $A, B in M_n(mathbb{C})$, write $A sim B$ if $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{C}$.



    Assume that $N in M_2(mathbb{R})$ satisfies $N^2 + I_2 = 0$. Then the minimal polynomial of $N$ is $X^2+1$ and this factors into distinct linear factors in $mathbb{C}$. So $N$ is diagonalizable in $mathbb{C}$ with eigenvalues $i$ and $-i$, i.e., $N sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i) $ in $mathbb{C}$. By the same reason, $N_0 sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i)$ and hence $N sim N_0$. Then the desired claim follows from the following proposition.




    Proposition. Let $A, B in M_n(mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $A sim B$. Then $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$.




    Proof. Choose $P in mathrm{GL}_n(mathbb{C})$ such that $A = PBP^{-1}$. Write $P = Q+iR$ for $Q, R in M_n(mathbb{R})$ and define $P_z = Q + zR$ for $z in mathbb{C}$.




    1. Since $AQ = QB$ and $AR = RB$, we have $AP_z = P_z B$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$,


    2. $det(P_i) = det(P) neq 0$, hence $det(P_z)$ is a non-zero polynomial in $mathbb{R}[z]$.



    So we can find $x in mathbb{R}$ such that $P_x$ is invertible. Then $P_x in operatorname{GL}_2(mathbb{R})$ and $A = P_x BP_x^{-1}$, hence $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$ as required. $Box$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Euler Pythagoras
      Oct 28 '18 at 11:30














    4












    4








    4





    $begingroup$

    For $A, B in M_n(mathbb{C})$, write $A sim B$ if $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{C}$.



    Assume that $N in M_2(mathbb{R})$ satisfies $N^2 + I_2 = 0$. Then the minimal polynomial of $N$ is $X^2+1$ and this factors into distinct linear factors in $mathbb{C}$. So $N$ is diagonalizable in $mathbb{C}$ with eigenvalues $i$ and $-i$, i.e., $N sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i) $ in $mathbb{C}$. By the same reason, $N_0 sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i)$ and hence $N sim N_0$. Then the desired claim follows from the following proposition.




    Proposition. Let $A, B in M_n(mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $A sim B$. Then $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$.




    Proof. Choose $P in mathrm{GL}_n(mathbb{C})$ such that $A = PBP^{-1}$. Write $P = Q+iR$ for $Q, R in M_n(mathbb{R})$ and define $P_z = Q + zR$ for $z in mathbb{C}$.




    1. Since $AQ = QB$ and $AR = RB$, we have $AP_z = P_z B$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$,


    2. $det(P_i) = det(P) neq 0$, hence $det(P_z)$ is a non-zero polynomial in $mathbb{R}[z]$.



    So we can find $x in mathbb{R}$ such that $P_x$ is invertible. Then $P_x in operatorname{GL}_2(mathbb{R})$ and $A = P_x BP_x^{-1}$, hence $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$ as required. $Box$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    For $A, B in M_n(mathbb{C})$, write $A sim B$ if $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{C}$.



    Assume that $N in M_2(mathbb{R})$ satisfies $N^2 + I_2 = 0$. Then the minimal polynomial of $N$ is $X^2+1$ and this factors into distinct linear factors in $mathbb{C}$. So $N$ is diagonalizable in $mathbb{C}$ with eigenvalues $i$ and $-i$, i.e., $N sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i) $ in $mathbb{C}$. By the same reason, $N_0 sim operatorname{diag}(i, -i)$ and hence $N sim N_0$. Then the desired claim follows from the following proposition.




    Proposition. Let $A, B in M_n(mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $A sim B$. Then $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$.




    Proof. Choose $P in mathrm{GL}_n(mathbb{C})$ such that $A = PBP^{-1}$. Write $P = Q+iR$ for $Q, R in M_n(mathbb{R})$ and define $P_z = Q + zR$ for $z in mathbb{C}$.




    1. Since $AQ = QB$ and $AR = RB$, we have $AP_z = P_z B$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$,


    2. $det(P_i) = det(P) neq 0$, hence $det(P_z)$ is a non-zero polynomial in $mathbb{R}[z]$.



    So we can find $x in mathbb{R}$ such that $P_x$ is invertible. Then $P_x in operatorname{GL}_2(mathbb{R})$ and $A = P_x BP_x^{-1}$, hence $A$ and $B$ are similar in $mathbb{R}$ as required. $Box$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 19 '18 at 0:07









    Namaste

    1




    1










    answered Oct 28 '18 at 4:49









    Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

    96.3k12171282




    96.3k12171282












    • $begingroup$
      You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Euler Pythagoras
      Oct 28 '18 at 11:30


















    • $begingroup$
      You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Euler Pythagoras
      Oct 28 '18 at 11:30
















    $begingroup$
    You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Euler Pythagoras
    Oct 28 '18 at 11:30




    $begingroup$
    You didn't have to prove your proposition, which is a pretty classical exercise but thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Euler Pythagoras
    Oct 28 '18 at 11:30











    2












    $begingroup$

    It's not very hard to find all matrices $N in M_2(Bbb R)$ such that



    $N^2 = -I; tag 1$



    for let



    $N = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}; tag 2$



    then



    $begin{bmatrix} n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} & n_{11}n_{12} + n_{12} n_{22} \ n_{21}n_{11} + n_{22} n_{21} & n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix} = N^2 = -I; tag 3$



    therefore,



    $n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} = n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 = -1, tag 4$



    $(n_{11} + n_{22})n_{12} = (n_{11} + n_{22})n_{21} = 0; tag 5$



    we see from this equation that



    $text{Tr}(N) = n_{11} + n_{22} tag 6$



    is a determinative, classifying factor; if



    $text{Tr}(N) ne 0, tag 7$



    then from (5),



    $n_{21} = n_{12} = 0, tag 8$



    whence from (4),



    $n_{11}^2 = n_{22}^2 = -1; tag 9$



    clearly there are no real solutions in this case (7); thus we take



    $text{Tr}(N) = 0, tag 8$



    and see that



    $-n_{22} = n_{11} = alpha in Bbb R; tag 9$



    now from (4),



    $n_{12}n_{21} ne 0, tag{10}$



    implying



    $n_{12} ne 0 ne n_{21}; tag{11}$



    thus we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{n_{12}}; tag{12}$



    if we set



    $n_{12} = beta ne 0, tag{13}$



    then we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta}; tag{14}$



    taken together, (9)-(14) provide a parameterized family of $2 times 2$ matrices



    $N(alpha, beta) = begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} tag{15}$



    such that



    $N^2(alpha, beta) = -I. tag{16}$



    It is easy to see that the set of admissible parameters is characterized by



    $alpha in Bbb R, ; 0 ne beta in Bbb R. tag{17}$



    Careful scrutiny of the above argument reveals that we have in fact demonstrated that every matrix in $M_2(Bbb R)$ satisfying (1) is of the form (15); therefore our parametric representation (15) is complete.



    Since any $2 times 2$ real matrix satisfting (1) is of the form (15), and we see that



    $text{Tr}(N(alpha, beta)) = alpha + (-alpha) = 0, tag{18}$



    and



    $det(N(alpha, beta)) = -alpha^2 + beta dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} = 1, tag{19}$



    and thus all have characteristic polynomial



    $chi_N(x) = x^2 + 1, tag{20}$



    we may affirm the the eigenvalues of any $N(alpha, beta)$ are $pm i$, and the eigenvectors satisfy



    $begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} = pm ibegin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}, ; v_1, v_2 in Bbb C; tag{21}$



    then with eigenvalue $i$,



    $alpha v_1 + beta v_2 = i v_1, tag{22}$



    which since $beta ne 0$ yields



    $v_2 = dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} v_1; tag{23}$



    since eigenvectors are only determined up to a scaling factor, we can in fact take $v_1 = 1$ and then



    $ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{24}$



    since $N(alpha, beta)$ is a real matrix it follows that the eigenvector associated with $-i$ is



    $overline{ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}} = begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ bar v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{- i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{25}$



    the diagonalizing matrix is thus



    $V = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & dfrac{-i - alpha}{beta} end{bmatrix}, tag{26}$



    with



    $det(V) = -dfrac{2i}{beta}, tag{27}$



    we have



    $V^{-1} = dfrac{beta i}{2}begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ -i - alpha}{beta} & -1 \ -dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ 1 - ialpha}{2} & -dfrac{beta i}{2} \ -dfrac{-1 - ialpha}{2} & dfrac{beta i}{2} end{bmatrix}; tag{28}$



    therefore



    $V^{-1} N(alpha, beta)V = begin{bmatrix} i & 0 \ 0 & -i end{bmatrix}; tag{29}$



    finally, $N$ from (1) itself may be so represented via application of the above formulas; therefore any $N(alpha, beta)$ is similar to $N$, since each is similar to the diagonal matrix $text{diag}(i, -i)$.



    We have thus reached an affirmative answer to our OP Euler Pythagoras' closing question, even if our path has been a tad on the round-about side. We did however discover the formula (15) for solutions to (1), which I think is pretty cool.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
      $endgroup$
      – mathreadler
      Oct 28 '18 at 7:55
















    2












    $begingroup$

    It's not very hard to find all matrices $N in M_2(Bbb R)$ such that



    $N^2 = -I; tag 1$



    for let



    $N = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}; tag 2$



    then



    $begin{bmatrix} n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} & n_{11}n_{12} + n_{12} n_{22} \ n_{21}n_{11} + n_{22} n_{21} & n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix} = N^2 = -I; tag 3$



    therefore,



    $n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} = n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 = -1, tag 4$



    $(n_{11} + n_{22})n_{12} = (n_{11} + n_{22})n_{21} = 0; tag 5$



    we see from this equation that



    $text{Tr}(N) = n_{11} + n_{22} tag 6$



    is a determinative, classifying factor; if



    $text{Tr}(N) ne 0, tag 7$



    then from (5),



    $n_{21} = n_{12} = 0, tag 8$



    whence from (4),



    $n_{11}^2 = n_{22}^2 = -1; tag 9$



    clearly there are no real solutions in this case (7); thus we take



    $text{Tr}(N) = 0, tag 8$



    and see that



    $-n_{22} = n_{11} = alpha in Bbb R; tag 9$



    now from (4),



    $n_{12}n_{21} ne 0, tag{10}$



    implying



    $n_{12} ne 0 ne n_{21}; tag{11}$



    thus we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{n_{12}}; tag{12}$



    if we set



    $n_{12} = beta ne 0, tag{13}$



    then we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta}; tag{14}$



    taken together, (9)-(14) provide a parameterized family of $2 times 2$ matrices



    $N(alpha, beta) = begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} tag{15}$



    such that



    $N^2(alpha, beta) = -I. tag{16}$



    It is easy to see that the set of admissible parameters is characterized by



    $alpha in Bbb R, ; 0 ne beta in Bbb R. tag{17}$



    Careful scrutiny of the above argument reveals that we have in fact demonstrated that every matrix in $M_2(Bbb R)$ satisfying (1) is of the form (15); therefore our parametric representation (15) is complete.



    Since any $2 times 2$ real matrix satisfting (1) is of the form (15), and we see that



    $text{Tr}(N(alpha, beta)) = alpha + (-alpha) = 0, tag{18}$



    and



    $det(N(alpha, beta)) = -alpha^2 + beta dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} = 1, tag{19}$



    and thus all have characteristic polynomial



    $chi_N(x) = x^2 + 1, tag{20}$



    we may affirm the the eigenvalues of any $N(alpha, beta)$ are $pm i$, and the eigenvectors satisfy



    $begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} = pm ibegin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}, ; v_1, v_2 in Bbb C; tag{21}$



    then with eigenvalue $i$,



    $alpha v_1 + beta v_2 = i v_1, tag{22}$



    which since $beta ne 0$ yields



    $v_2 = dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} v_1; tag{23}$



    since eigenvectors are only determined up to a scaling factor, we can in fact take $v_1 = 1$ and then



    $ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{24}$



    since $N(alpha, beta)$ is a real matrix it follows that the eigenvector associated with $-i$ is



    $overline{ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}} = begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ bar v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{- i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{25}$



    the diagonalizing matrix is thus



    $V = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & dfrac{-i - alpha}{beta} end{bmatrix}, tag{26}$



    with



    $det(V) = -dfrac{2i}{beta}, tag{27}$



    we have



    $V^{-1} = dfrac{beta i}{2}begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ -i - alpha}{beta} & -1 \ -dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ 1 - ialpha}{2} & -dfrac{beta i}{2} \ -dfrac{-1 - ialpha}{2} & dfrac{beta i}{2} end{bmatrix}; tag{28}$



    therefore



    $V^{-1} N(alpha, beta)V = begin{bmatrix} i & 0 \ 0 & -i end{bmatrix}; tag{29}$



    finally, $N$ from (1) itself may be so represented via application of the above formulas; therefore any $N(alpha, beta)$ is similar to $N$, since each is similar to the diagonal matrix $text{diag}(i, -i)$.



    We have thus reached an affirmative answer to our OP Euler Pythagoras' closing question, even if our path has been a tad on the round-about side. We did however discover the formula (15) for solutions to (1), which I think is pretty cool.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
      $endgroup$
      – mathreadler
      Oct 28 '18 at 7:55














    2












    2








    2





    $begingroup$

    It's not very hard to find all matrices $N in M_2(Bbb R)$ such that



    $N^2 = -I; tag 1$



    for let



    $N = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}; tag 2$



    then



    $begin{bmatrix} n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} & n_{11}n_{12} + n_{12} n_{22} \ n_{21}n_{11} + n_{22} n_{21} & n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix} = N^2 = -I; tag 3$



    therefore,



    $n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} = n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 = -1, tag 4$



    $(n_{11} + n_{22})n_{12} = (n_{11} + n_{22})n_{21} = 0; tag 5$



    we see from this equation that



    $text{Tr}(N) = n_{11} + n_{22} tag 6$



    is a determinative, classifying factor; if



    $text{Tr}(N) ne 0, tag 7$



    then from (5),



    $n_{21} = n_{12} = 0, tag 8$



    whence from (4),



    $n_{11}^2 = n_{22}^2 = -1; tag 9$



    clearly there are no real solutions in this case (7); thus we take



    $text{Tr}(N) = 0, tag 8$



    and see that



    $-n_{22} = n_{11} = alpha in Bbb R; tag 9$



    now from (4),



    $n_{12}n_{21} ne 0, tag{10}$



    implying



    $n_{12} ne 0 ne n_{21}; tag{11}$



    thus we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{n_{12}}; tag{12}$



    if we set



    $n_{12} = beta ne 0, tag{13}$



    then we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta}; tag{14}$



    taken together, (9)-(14) provide a parameterized family of $2 times 2$ matrices



    $N(alpha, beta) = begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} tag{15}$



    such that



    $N^2(alpha, beta) = -I. tag{16}$



    It is easy to see that the set of admissible parameters is characterized by



    $alpha in Bbb R, ; 0 ne beta in Bbb R. tag{17}$



    Careful scrutiny of the above argument reveals that we have in fact demonstrated that every matrix in $M_2(Bbb R)$ satisfying (1) is of the form (15); therefore our parametric representation (15) is complete.



    Since any $2 times 2$ real matrix satisfting (1) is of the form (15), and we see that



    $text{Tr}(N(alpha, beta)) = alpha + (-alpha) = 0, tag{18}$



    and



    $det(N(alpha, beta)) = -alpha^2 + beta dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} = 1, tag{19}$



    and thus all have characteristic polynomial



    $chi_N(x) = x^2 + 1, tag{20}$



    we may affirm the the eigenvalues of any $N(alpha, beta)$ are $pm i$, and the eigenvectors satisfy



    $begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} = pm ibegin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}, ; v_1, v_2 in Bbb C; tag{21}$



    then with eigenvalue $i$,



    $alpha v_1 + beta v_2 = i v_1, tag{22}$



    which since $beta ne 0$ yields



    $v_2 = dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} v_1; tag{23}$



    since eigenvectors are only determined up to a scaling factor, we can in fact take $v_1 = 1$ and then



    $ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{24}$



    since $N(alpha, beta)$ is a real matrix it follows that the eigenvector associated with $-i$ is



    $overline{ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}} = begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ bar v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{- i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{25}$



    the diagonalizing matrix is thus



    $V = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & dfrac{-i - alpha}{beta} end{bmatrix}, tag{26}$



    with



    $det(V) = -dfrac{2i}{beta}, tag{27}$



    we have



    $V^{-1} = dfrac{beta i}{2}begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ -i - alpha}{beta} & -1 \ -dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ 1 - ialpha}{2} & -dfrac{beta i}{2} \ -dfrac{-1 - ialpha}{2} & dfrac{beta i}{2} end{bmatrix}; tag{28}$



    therefore



    $V^{-1} N(alpha, beta)V = begin{bmatrix} i & 0 \ 0 & -i end{bmatrix}; tag{29}$



    finally, $N$ from (1) itself may be so represented via application of the above formulas; therefore any $N(alpha, beta)$ is similar to $N$, since each is similar to the diagonal matrix $text{diag}(i, -i)$.



    We have thus reached an affirmative answer to our OP Euler Pythagoras' closing question, even if our path has been a tad on the round-about side. We did however discover the formula (15) for solutions to (1), which I think is pretty cool.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    It's not very hard to find all matrices $N in M_2(Bbb R)$ such that



    $N^2 = -I; tag 1$



    for let



    $N = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}; tag 2$



    then



    $begin{bmatrix} n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} & n_{11}n_{12} + n_{12} n_{22} \ n_{21}n_{11} + n_{22} n_{21} & n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} n_{11} & n_{12} \ n_{21} & n_{22}end{bmatrix} = N^2 = -I; tag 3$



    therefore,



    $n_{11}^2 + n_{12}n_{21} = n_{21}n_{12} + n_{22}^2 = -1, tag 4$



    $(n_{11} + n_{22})n_{12} = (n_{11} + n_{22})n_{21} = 0; tag 5$



    we see from this equation that



    $text{Tr}(N) = n_{11} + n_{22} tag 6$



    is a determinative, classifying factor; if



    $text{Tr}(N) ne 0, tag 7$



    then from (5),



    $n_{21} = n_{12} = 0, tag 8$



    whence from (4),



    $n_{11}^2 = n_{22}^2 = -1; tag 9$



    clearly there are no real solutions in this case (7); thus we take



    $text{Tr}(N) = 0, tag 8$



    and see that



    $-n_{22} = n_{11} = alpha in Bbb R; tag 9$



    now from (4),



    $n_{12}n_{21} ne 0, tag{10}$



    implying



    $n_{12} ne 0 ne n_{21}; tag{11}$



    thus we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{n_{12}}; tag{12}$



    if we set



    $n_{12} = beta ne 0, tag{13}$



    then we may write



    $n_{21} = -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta}; tag{14}$



    taken together, (9)-(14) provide a parameterized family of $2 times 2$ matrices



    $N(alpha, beta) = begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} tag{15}$



    such that



    $N^2(alpha, beta) = -I. tag{16}$



    It is easy to see that the set of admissible parameters is characterized by



    $alpha in Bbb R, ; 0 ne beta in Bbb R. tag{17}$



    Careful scrutiny of the above argument reveals that we have in fact demonstrated that every matrix in $M_2(Bbb R)$ satisfying (1) is of the form (15); therefore our parametric representation (15) is complete.



    Since any $2 times 2$ real matrix satisfting (1) is of the form (15), and we see that



    $text{Tr}(N(alpha, beta)) = alpha + (-alpha) = 0, tag{18}$



    and



    $det(N(alpha, beta)) = -alpha^2 + beta dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} = 1, tag{19}$



    and thus all have characteristic polynomial



    $chi_N(x) = x^2 + 1, tag{20}$



    we may affirm the the eigenvalues of any $N(alpha, beta)$ are $pm i$, and the eigenvectors satisfy



    $begin{bmatrix} alpha & beta \ -dfrac{1 + alpha^2}{beta} & -alpha end{bmatrix} begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} = pm ibegin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}, ; v_1, v_2 in Bbb C; tag{21}$



    then with eigenvalue $i$,



    $alpha v_1 + beta v_2 = i v_1, tag{22}$



    which since $beta ne 0$ yields



    $v_2 = dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} v_1; tag{23}$



    since eigenvectors are only determined up to a scaling factor, we can in fact take $v_1 = 1$ and then



    $ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{24}$



    since $N(alpha, beta)$ is a real matrix it follows that the eigenvector associated with $-i$ is



    $overline{ begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ v_2 end{pmatrix}} = begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ bar v_2 end{pmatrix} =begin{pmatrix} 1 \dfrac{- i - alpha}{beta} end{pmatrix}; tag{25}$



    the diagonalizing matrix is thus



    $V = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & dfrac{-i - alpha}{beta} end{bmatrix}, tag{26}$



    with



    $det(V) = -dfrac{2i}{beta}, tag{27}$



    we have



    $V^{-1} = dfrac{beta i}{2}begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ -i - alpha}{beta} & -1 \ -dfrac{i - alpha}{beta} & 1 end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} dfrac{ 1 - ialpha}{2} & -dfrac{beta i}{2} \ -dfrac{-1 - ialpha}{2} & dfrac{beta i}{2} end{bmatrix}; tag{28}$



    therefore



    $V^{-1} N(alpha, beta)V = begin{bmatrix} i & 0 \ 0 & -i end{bmatrix}; tag{29}$



    finally, $N$ from (1) itself may be so represented via application of the above formulas; therefore any $N(alpha, beta)$ is similar to $N$, since each is similar to the diagonal matrix $text{diag}(i, -i)$.



    We have thus reached an affirmative answer to our OP Euler Pythagoras' closing question, even if our path has been a tad on the round-about side. We did however discover the formula (15) for solutions to (1), which I think is pretty cool.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Oct 28 '18 at 4:15

























    answered Oct 28 '18 at 3:43









    Robert LewisRobert Lewis

    48.5k23167




    48.5k23167








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
      $endgroup$
      – mathreadler
      Oct 28 '18 at 7:55














    • 1




      $begingroup$
      It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
      $endgroup$
      – mathreadler
      Oct 28 '18 at 7:55








    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
    $endgroup$
    – mathreadler
    Oct 28 '18 at 7:55




    $begingroup$
    It is indeed pretty cool. I am impressed by the long answer.
    $endgroup$
    – mathreadler
    Oct 28 '18 at 7:55











    1












    $begingroup$

    Something more general holds. If $f(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}t^{n-1} + dots + a_1t + a_0$ is a monic polynomial then the matrix



    $$ C_f = begin{pmatrix}
    0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_0 \
    1 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_1 \
    0 & 1 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_2 \
    0 & 0 & 1 & dots & 0 & -a_3 \
    vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots & vdots \
    0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 1 & -a_{n-1}
    end{pmatrix}
    $$



    is called the companion matrix of $f$. A simple calculation shows that $C_f$ satisfies $f$, meaning that
    $$ f(C_f) = C_f^n + a_{n-1}C_f^{n-1} + dots + a_1 C_f + a_0I = 0 $$



    Moreover, if $C_f$ satisfies any other polynomial equation $g(C_f) = 0$ then $f$ divides $g$. We say that $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $C_f$.



    There's a result in algebra called rational normal form (or "canonical form") that says that every matrix is similar to a block diagonal matrix of companion matrices. Specifically,




    If $A$ is a matrix that satisfies a polynomial $f$ (for example its characteristic polynomial) then $A$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are companion matrices. I.e. $$A sim operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r}).$$
    Moreover:





    1. $g_i$ divides $f$ for $i = 1, dots, r$

    2. We can make it so that $g_i$ divides $g_{i + 1}$ for $i = 1,dots,r-1$

    3. If 2. holds, you can check that $g_r$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$ in the sense described above.




    One idea here is that if $h$ is any polynomial then
    $$h(operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r})) = operatorname{diag}(h(C_{g_1}),dots,h(C_{g_r})). $$
    This is true generally for block-diagonal matrices.



    The point is that for the polynomial $f(t) = t^2 + 1$ the only real factors of $f$ are $1$ and $t^2 + 1$. On the other hand, $C_1$ is the empty $0times 0$ matrix which just leaves us with $C_{t^2 + 1}$ is exactly what you called $N_0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Something more general holds. If $f(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}t^{n-1} + dots + a_1t + a_0$ is a monic polynomial then the matrix



      $$ C_f = begin{pmatrix}
      0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_0 \
      1 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_1 \
      0 & 1 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_2 \
      0 & 0 & 1 & dots & 0 & -a_3 \
      vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots & vdots \
      0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 1 & -a_{n-1}
      end{pmatrix}
      $$



      is called the companion matrix of $f$. A simple calculation shows that $C_f$ satisfies $f$, meaning that
      $$ f(C_f) = C_f^n + a_{n-1}C_f^{n-1} + dots + a_1 C_f + a_0I = 0 $$



      Moreover, if $C_f$ satisfies any other polynomial equation $g(C_f) = 0$ then $f$ divides $g$. We say that $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $C_f$.



      There's a result in algebra called rational normal form (or "canonical form") that says that every matrix is similar to a block diagonal matrix of companion matrices. Specifically,




      If $A$ is a matrix that satisfies a polynomial $f$ (for example its characteristic polynomial) then $A$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are companion matrices. I.e. $$A sim operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r}).$$
      Moreover:





      1. $g_i$ divides $f$ for $i = 1, dots, r$

      2. We can make it so that $g_i$ divides $g_{i + 1}$ for $i = 1,dots,r-1$

      3. If 2. holds, you can check that $g_r$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$ in the sense described above.




      One idea here is that if $h$ is any polynomial then
      $$h(operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r})) = operatorname{diag}(h(C_{g_1}),dots,h(C_{g_r})). $$
      This is true generally for block-diagonal matrices.



      The point is that for the polynomial $f(t) = t^2 + 1$ the only real factors of $f$ are $1$ and $t^2 + 1$. On the other hand, $C_1$ is the empty $0times 0$ matrix which just leaves us with $C_{t^2 + 1}$ is exactly what you called $N_0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Something more general holds. If $f(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}t^{n-1} + dots + a_1t + a_0$ is a monic polynomial then the matrix



        $$ C_f = begin{pmatrix}
        0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_0 \
        1 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_1 \
        0 & 1 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_2 \
        0 & 0 & 1 & dots & 0 & -a_3 \
        vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots & vdots \
        0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 1 & -a_{n-1}
        end{pmatrix}
        $$



        is called the companion matrix of $f$. A simple calculation shows that $C_f$ satisfies $f$, meaning that
        $$ f(C_f) = C_f^n + a_{n-1}C_f^{n-1} + dots + a_1 C_f + a_0I = 0 $$



        Moreover, if $C_f$ satisfies any other polynomial equation $g(C_f) = 0$ then $f$ divides $g$. We say that $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $C_f$.



        There's a result in algebra called rational normal form (or "canonical form") that says that every matrix is similar to a block diagonal matrix of companion matrices. Specifically,




        If $A$ is a matrix that satisfies a polynomial $f$ (for example its characteristic polynomial) then $A$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are companion matrices. I.e. $$A sim operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r}).$$
        Moreover:





        1. $g_i$ divides $f$ for $i = 1, dots, r$

        2. We can make it so that $g_i$ divides $g_{i + 1}$ for $i = 1,dots,r-1$

        3. If 2. holds, you can check that $g_r$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$ in the sense described above.




        One idea here is that if $h$ is any polynomial then
        $$h(operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r})) = operatorname{diag}(h(C_{g_1}),dots,h(C_{g_r})). $$
        This is true generally for block-diagonal matrices.



        The point is that for the polynomial $f(t) = t^2 + 1$ the only real factors of $f$ are $1$ and $t^2 + 1$. On the other hand, $C_1$ is the empty $0times 0$ matrix which just leaves us with $C_{t^2 + 1}$ is exactly what you called $N_0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Something more general holds. If $f(t) = t^n + a_{n-1}t^{n-1} + dots + a_1t + a_0$ is a monic polynomial then the matrix



        $$ C_f = begin{pmatrix}
        0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_0 \
        1 & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_1 \
        0 & 1 & 0 & dots & 0 & -a_2 \
        0 & 0 & 1 & dots & 0 & -a_3 \
        vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots & vdots \
        0 & 0 & 0 & dots & 1 & -a_{n-1}
        end{pmatrix}
        $$



        is called the companion matrix of $f$. A simple calculation shows that $C_f$ satisfies $f$, meaning that
        $$ f(C_f) = C_f^n + a_{n-1}C_f^{n-1} + dots + a_1 C_f + a_0I = 0 $$



        Moreover, if $C_f$ satisfies any other polynomial equation $g(C_f) = 0$ then $f$ divides $g$. We say that $f$ is the minimal polynomial of $C_f$.



        There's a result in algebra called rational normal form (or "canonical form") that says that every matrix is similar to a block diagonal matrix of companion matrices. Specifically,




        If $A$ is a matrix that satisfies a polynomial $f$ (for example its characteristic polynomial) then $A$ is similar to a block diagonal matrix whose blocks are companion matrices. I.e. $$A sim operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r}).$$
        Moreover:





        1. $g_i$ divides $f$ for $i = 1, dots, r$

        2. We can make it so that $g_i$ divides $g_{i + 1}$ for $i = 1,dots,r-1$

        3. If 2. holds, you can check that $g_r$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$ in the sense described above.




        One idea here is that if $h$ is any polynomial then
        $$h(operatorname{diag}(C_{g_1},dots,C_{g_r})) = operatorname{diag}(h(C_{g_1}),dots,h(C_{g_r})). $$
        This is true generally for block-diagonal matrices.



        The point is that for the polynomial $f(t) = t^2 + 1$ the only real factors of $f$ are $1$ and $t^2 + 1$. On the other hand, $C_1$ is the empty $0times 0$ matrix which just leaves us with $C_{t^2 + 1}$ is exactly what you called $N_0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Oct 28 '18 at 5:35

























        answered Oct 28 '18 at 5:30









        Trevor GunnTrevor Gunn

        15k32047




        15k32047






























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