Problem with evaluating $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using Beta Function
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Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$
Where did I go wrong?
definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$
Where did I go wrong?
definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function
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$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
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– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
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Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
1
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$
Where did I go wrong?
definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function
$endgroup$
Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$
Where did I go wrong?
definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function
definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function
edited Dec 19 '18 at 23:51
Larry
2,53031131
2,53031131
asked Dec 19 '18 at 23:32
aledenaleden
2,5351511
2,5351511
$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
1
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
1
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
1
1
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
add a comment |
3 Answers
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$begingroup$
You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.
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add a comment |
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Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
The final outcome is:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral
$$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
&= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$
We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula
$$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$
derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as
$$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$
which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,
$$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
&approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$
In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$
$endgroup$
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.
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You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.
answered Dec 19 '18 at 23:38
J.G.J.G.
32.6k23250
32.6k23250
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
The final outcome is:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
The final outcome is:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
The final outcome is:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$
$endgroup$
Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
$$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
The final outcome is:
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$
answered Dec 20 '18 at 1:00
Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio
292k33284672
292k33284672
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral
$$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
&= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$
We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula
$$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$
derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as
$$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$
which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,
$$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
&approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$
In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral
$$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
&= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$
We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula
$$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$
derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as
$$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$
which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,
$$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
&approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$
In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral
$$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
&= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$
We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula
$$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$
derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as
$$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$
which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,
$$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
&approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$
In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$
$endgroup$
Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral
$$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
&= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$
We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula
$$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$
derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as
$$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$
which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,
$$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
&approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$
In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer
$$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$
answered Dec 21 '18 at 5:27
IninterrompueIninterrompue
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$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37
$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39
1
$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41