Problem with evaluating $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using Beta Function












1












$begingroup$


Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$



Where did I go wrong?










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  • $begingroup$
    $psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:37












  • $begingroup$
    Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
















1












$begingroup$


Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$



Where did I go wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:37












  • $begingroup$
    Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:41














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$



Where did I go wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Recently I've been trying to tackle the integral $int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dtheta$ using the Beta function
$$frac{B(frac{x}{2},frac{1}{2})}{2}=int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}left(Gammaleft(frac{x+1}{2}right)right)^{-1}$$
Differentiating both sides
$$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))sin^{x-1}(theta)dtheta=-frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}frac{psi(frac{x+1}{2})}{Gamma(frac{x+1}{2})}$$
However, at $x=1$ $$int_0^{frac{pi}{2}} ln(sin(theta))dthetanefrac{gammasqrt{pi}}{4}$$



Where did I go wrong?







definite-integrals gamma-function beta-function






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edited Dec 19 '18 at 23:51









Larry

2,53031131




2,53031131










asked Dec 19 '18 at 23:32









aledenaleden

2,5351511




2,5351511












  • $begingroup$
    $psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:37












  • $begingroup$
    Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:41


















  • $begingroup$
    $psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:37












  • $begingroup$
    Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
    $endgroup$
    – Frpzzd
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 19 '18 at 23:41
















$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37






$begingroup$
$psi(x)=frac{d}{dx}log Gamma(x)$, not $frac{d}{dx}Gamma(x)$.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:37














$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39




$begingroup$
Also, unless you are specifically asked to use the beta function to solve this integral, I would suggest a lot less messy solution. Note that it is equal to half the value of the integral $int_0^pi ln(sin(x))dx$, and make use of the sine double-angle formula.
$endgroup$
– Frpzzd
Dec 19 '18 at 23:39




1




1




$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41




$begingroup$
If you're open to a different method, call the integral $I$, so replacing $sin$ with $cos$ still gives $I$; you can simplify $2I$ using $sin 2x=2sin xcos x$, then prove $2I=I+cdots$
$endgroup$
– J.G.
Dec 19 '18 at 23:41










3 Answers
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4












$begingroup$

You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.






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    3












    $begingroup$

    Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,



    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
    Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:



    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
    Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
    $$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
    The final outcome is:
    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      2












      $begingroup$

      Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral



      $$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
      &= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$



      We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula



      $$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$



      derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as



      $$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$



      which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,



      $$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
      &approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$



      In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer



      $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        3 Answers
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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        4












        $begingroup$

        You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$


















          4












          $begingroup$

          You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$
















            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            You forgot the $Gamma(x/2)$ factor.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 19 '18 at 23:38









            J.G.J.G.

            32.6k23250




            32.6k23250























                3












                $begingroup$

                Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,



                $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
                Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:



                $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
                Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
                $$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
                The final outcome is:
                $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,



                  $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
                  Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:



                  $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
                  Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
                  $$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
                  The final outcome is:
                  $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    3












                    3








                    3





                    $begingroup$

                    Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,



                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
                    Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:



                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
                    Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
                    $$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
                    The final outcome is:
                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Cleaner approach: for any $alphageq 0$,



                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha},dtheta = int_{0}^{1}frac{u^alpha}{sqrt{1-u^2}},du = frac{1}{2}int_{0}^{1}v^{frac{alpha-1}{2}}(1-v)^{-1/2},dv = frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotfrac{sqrt{pi}}{2}$$
                    Now we differentiate both sides with respect to $alpha$. In order to differentiate the RHS, we multiply it by its logarithmic derivative. We get:



                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}left(sinthetaright)^{alpha}logsintheta,dtheta = frac{sqrt{pi}}{4}cdot frac{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+1}{2}right)}{Gammaleft(frac{alpha+2}{2}right)}cdotleft[psileft(tfrac{alpha+1}{2}right)-psileft(tfrac{alpha+2}{2}right)right]. $$
                    Now we evaluate at $alpha=0$, recalling that $Gamma(1)=1,Gammaleft(frac{1}{2}right)=sqrt{pi}$ and
                    $$ sum_{ngeq 0}frac{1}{(n+1)left(n+tfrac{1}{2}right)}=frac{psi(1)-psi(1/2)}{1-1/2}= 4log 2.$$
                    The final outcome is:
                    $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}logsintheta,dtheta = -frac{pi}{2}log 2.$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 20 '18 at 1:00









                    Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio

                    292k33284672




                    292k33284672























                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral



                        $$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
                        &= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$



                        We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula



                        $$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$



                        derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as



                        $$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$



                        which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,



                        $$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
                        &approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$



                        In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer



                        $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral



                          $$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
                          &= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$



                          We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula



                          $$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$



                          derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as



                          $$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$



                          which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,



                          $$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
                          &approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$



                          In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer



                          $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            2












                            2








                            2





                            $begingroup$

                            Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral



                            $$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
                            &= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$



                            We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula



                            $$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$



                            derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as



                            $$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$



                            which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,



                            $$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
                            &approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$



                            In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer



                            $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Another way that only requires knowledge of the beta function (and expansion of the gamma function) is given as follows. Consider the integral



                            $$begin{aligned}int_{0}^{pi/2}sin^{epsilon}x,mathrm{d}x &= int_{0}^{pi/2}e^{epsilonlnsin x},mathrm{d}x = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{epsilon^{n}}{n!}int_{0}^{infty}ln^{n}sin x,mathrm{d}x \
                            &= frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)}. end{aligned}$$



                            We have to match the appropriate coefficient of $epsilon$ found by expanding the latter expression to the coefficient of the series in the first line. The integral we are interested in is the $n=1$ term. $epsilon^{2}$ and higher order terms can then be neglected. Due to the trigonometric form of the beta function, integrals of this type often require the use of Legendre's duplication formula



                            $$ frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1/2+epsilon)} = frac{2^{2epsilon}}{sqrt{pi}}frac{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon)}{Gamma(1+2epsilon)}, $$



                            derived also by using the beta function. The expansion of the gamma function around $1$ is given as



                            $$ lnGamma(1+epsilon) = -gammaepsilon + sum_{k=2}^{infty}frac{(-1)^{k}zeta(k)}{k}epsilon^{k} $$



                            which is highly useful. Here $gamma$ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and $zeta(k)$ is the Riemann zeta function. Note that the form of the expansion of the gamma function and the ratio of gamma functions $Gamma(1+epsilon)/Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)$ means that the first order term of this ratio cannot contribute (it is just $1$), so up to first order,



                            $$begin{aligned} frac{Gamma(1/2)Gamma(1/2+epsilon/2)}{2,Gamma(1+epsilon/2)} &= frac{sqrt{pi}}{2}frac{sqrt{pi}}{2^{epsilon}}frac{Gamma(1+epsilon)}{Gamma^{2}(1+epsilon/2)} \
                            &approx frac{pi}{2}frac{1}{e^{(ln 2)epsilon}} approx frac{pi}{2}(1 - (ln 2)epsilon). end{aligned}$$



                            In general, if we look for the coefficient of the $n$th term, we have to multiply by $n!$ to account for the factorial in the original expansion. First order term is trivial: $1! = 1$, so the first order coefficient is the answer



                            $$ int_{0}^{pi/2}lnsin x,mathrm{d}x = -frac{pi}{2}ln 2. $$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



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                            answered Dec 21 '18 at 5:27









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