If $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb R$. Does it mean $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$.











up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
R$
.



1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










share|cite|improve this question




























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
    R$
    .



    1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



    2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



    3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



    4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
      R$
      .



      1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



      2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



      3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



      4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
      R$
      .



      1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



      2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



      3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



      4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?







      real-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Oct 31 at 9:58









      Robert Z

      91.9k1058129




      91.9k1058129










      asked Oct 31 at 9:27









      user43529463

      16118




      16118






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 10:55




















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12











          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2978903%2fif-lim-limits-x-to-c-fx-l-in-bbb-r-does-it-mean-f-is-differenti%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 10:55

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 10:55















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Oct 31 at 9:49

























          answered Oct 31 at 9:33









          Robert Z

          91.9k1058129




          91.9k1058129












          • Could you give more hints?
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 10:55




















          • Could you give more hints?
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – user43529463
            Oct 31 at 10:55


















          Could you give more hints?
          – user43529463
          Oct 31 at 9:35




          Could you give more hints?
          – user43529463
          Oct 31 at 9:35












          @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
          – Deepakms
          Oct 31 at 9:53






          @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
          – Deepakms
          Oct 31 at 9:53














          @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 9:55




          @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 9:55












          @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 10:16






          @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 10:16














          @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
          – user43529463
          Oct 31 at 10:55






          @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
          – user43529463
          Oct 31 at 10:55












          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12













          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Oct 31 at 9:39

























          answered Oct 31 at 9:32









          Deepakms

          368114




          368114








          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12














          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12








          2




          2




          In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Oct 31 at 10:12




          In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Oct 31 at 10:12


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





          Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


          Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2978903%2fif-lim-limits-x-to-c-fx-l-in-bbb-r-does-it-mean-f-is-differenti%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          Plaza Victoria

          Puebla de Zaragoza

          Musa