If $f$ complex polynomial such that $f(z) in mathbb{R}$ for all $|z| = 1$, then $f$ is constant.
$begingroup$
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
$endgroup$
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
$begingroup$
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
$endgroup$
Let $f in mathbb{C}[z]$ a complex polynomial such that $f(mathbb{D}) subset mathbb{R},$ where
$$
mathbb{D} = { z in mathbb{C} : |z| = 1 }
$$
Show that $f$ is constant.
My attempt is: define a function $g(z) = e^{if(z)}$ and plug some roots of unity in $g,$ but how can I conclude from this?
I know that if $Omega$ is open, connected and $f(Omega) subset mathbb{R},$ then $f$ is constant.
complex-analysis polynomials
complex-analysis polynomials
edited Nov 28 '18 at 18:37
Brahadeesh
6,18742361
6,18742361
asked Nov 28 '18 at 16:26
674123173797 - 4674123173797 - 4
1457
1457
$begingroup$
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
$endgroup$
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
$begingroup$
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
$endgroup$
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
$begingroup$
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
$endgroup$
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
$begingroup$
Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
$endgroup$
– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
$begingroup$
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
$endgroup$
Let $B(0,1)$ be the unit open ball centered at the origin, and let $D^2 = B(0,1) cup mathbb{D}$ be the closed unit ball centered at the origin.
If $f$ is not constant, then by the open mapping theorem, $f(B(0,1)) = Omega$ is an open subset of $mathbb{C}$. Since $mathbb{D}$ is the boundary of $B(0,1)$ it maps into the boundary of $Omega$. Since $D^2$ is compact, $f(D^2)$ is compact; so $f(D^2)$ is closed and bounded.
So, $mathbb{D}$ maps onto the boundary of $Omega$. But this can only happen if $f(B(0,1)) = mathbb{C} - f(mathbb{D})$. This is indeed open because $f(mathbb{D})$ is a compact set and hence closed and bounded. However, this means that $f(B(0,1))$ is not bounded, which is a contradiction because $f(D^2)$ was deduced to be bounded, and $f(D^2) supset f(B(0,1))$.
Thus, we have a contradiction. Hence, $f$ must be constant.
By the way, your notation is a bit odd because I have seen $mathbb{D}$ to be usually used to denote the closed unit disc, rather than the circle. Perhaps it would be appropriate to double check the source of the question.
edited Nov 28 '18 at 18:31
answered Nov 28 '18 at 18:21
BrahadeeshBrahadeesh
6,18742361
6,18742361
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
$endgroup$
If we set
$$
u(x,y)=mathrm{Im},f(x+iy),
$$
then $u$ is a harmonic function, which vanishes on the unit circle. Maximum (together with Minimum) Principle for harmonic function imply that
$$
max_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=max_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
quadtext{and}quad
min_{x^2+y^2le 1}{u(x,y)}=min_{x^2+y^2=1}{u(x,y)}=0
$$
Hence, $uequiv 0$ in the closed unit disk, and hence $uequiv 0$ everywhere. (Identity Principle.)
Thus $f$ takes only real values, and hence $f$ is constant.
answered Nov 28 '18 at 22:25
Yiorgos S. SmyrlisYiorgos S. Smyrlis
62.9k1384163
62.9k1384163
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
$endgroup$
I think we can do this from scratch, especially since we are given that $f$ is a polynomial:
Let $mathbb T$ be the unit circle, and $f$ a polynomial of degree $n$.
For $z=e^{it}$, consider the real number
$f(e^{it})=a_0 +a_1e^{it}+a_2e^{2it}+cdots a_{n}e^{nit}.$
The imaginary part of this must be equal to zero, so
$Im a_0+sum^{n}_{k=1}(Re a_ksin kt+Im a_kcos kt)=0$.
But now, linear independence of the set $left {1, sin kt,cos kt right }^{n}_{k=1}$ on $mathbb T$ implies that
$Im a_0=a_1=cdots=a_n=0$ so $f(z)=Re a_0$.
edited Nov 28 '18 at 22:54
answered Nov 28 '18 at 17:16
MatematletaMatematleta
10.2k2918
10.2k2918
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
The imaginary part $text{Im};f(z)$ of $f(z)$ is harmonic, and zero on the unit circle, hence by the maximum principle for harmonic functions, we conclude that $text{Im};f(z)$ is identically zero in the ball. Thus $f$ is real in the ball. Of course a non-constant real function cannot have complex derivative at $0$; in particular $f$ is not a polynomial.
edited Dec 1 '18 at 22:36
answered Nov 28 '18 at 22:26
GEdgarGEdgar
62k267168
62k267168
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
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– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
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If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
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– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
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Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
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– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
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Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
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– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
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Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
$begingroup$
Nice proof but I think it defeats the purpose of the questionbecause I doubt the OP has gotten that far
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:28
1
1
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
If he has not gotten to the maximum principle, I doubt he haa gotten to the open mapping theorem, either.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Fair enough, but since $f$ is given as a polynomial, it just seems like overkill to bring out the open mapping theorem/max modulus principle. I think you only need linear independence of ${1,e^{int}}$ on $mathbb T.$ I am no expert, though, so if you really do need these bigger guns, please let me know!
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:37
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
$begingroup$
Nice proof using the maximum principle for harminic functions.
$endgroup$
– 674123173797 - 4
Dec 1 '18 at 22:02
add a comment |
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Can you can break $mathbb{D}$ into two open charts and conclude that if it's constant on those charts and where the charts overlap then it must be constant on the entire set? I want to puncture the circle at a single point, conclude it's constant on that open set, then do it again with a different point and then conclude it's constant everywhere.
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– CyclotomicField
Nov 28 '18 at 18:30
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The other answers are slick (and correct), but I think I have a from scratch proof that might be what you are looking for.
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– Matematleta
Nov 28 '18 at 22:33