Is it possible to observe the residue?












0












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I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



Do you have any idea ?










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



    Do you have any idea ?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



      Do you have any idea ?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



      Do you have any idea ?







      complex-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 28 '18 at 18:47









      Marine GalantinMarine Galantin

      705215




      705215






















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          $begingroup$

          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • $begingroup$
            Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • $begingroup$
            If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28











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          $begingroup$

          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • $begingroup$
            Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • $begingroup$
            If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28
















          1












          $begingroup$

          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • $begingroup$
            Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • $begingroup$
            If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 '18 at 18:59









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          153k22123225




          153k22123225












          • $begingroup$
            So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • $begingroup$
            Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • $begingroup$
            If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28


















          • $begingroup$
            So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • $begingroup$
            Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            $endgroup$
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • $begingroup$
            If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            $endgroup$
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28
















          $begingroup$
          So is there a way to interpret the residue?
          $endgroup$
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:00




          $begingroup$
          So is there a way to interpret the residue?
          $endgroup$
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:00




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:02




          $begingroup$
          Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:02












          $begingroup$
          Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
          $endgroup$
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:16






          $begingroup$
          Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
          $endgroup$
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:16














          $begingroup$
          If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:21




          $begingroup$
          If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:21




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:28




          $begingroup$
          But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
          $endgroup$
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:28


















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