Proving the continuity of the Cantor Function












1












$begingroup$


Consider the Cantor Set $C={0,1}^{omega}$, that is, the space of all sequences $(b_1,b_2,...)$ with each $b_iin{0,1}$. Define $g:Crightarrow[0,1]$ by $$g(b_1,b_2,...)=sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}dfrac{b_i}{2^i}$$ In other words, $g(b_1,b_2,...)$ is the real number whose digits in base 2 are $0.b_1b_2...$



Prove that $g$ is continuous.



Here is my attempt:



Let sequences $(a_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ and $(b_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be elements of the Cantor Set $C.$ For fixed $ninmathbb{N}$ let $A_n=(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ and $B_n=(b_1,b_2,...,b_n)$ be the first $n$ terms in each of those sequences. If $A_nneq B_n$, then $exists m=min{kin{1,2,...,n}:a_kneq b_k}$ and the following holds:
$$begin{array}{c}
left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-left|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geq\ geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k} \
text{where $|a_m-b_m|$=1 and}\
sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leq sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^m}\
text{Now,}\
left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|leq\
leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^n}\
text{Therefore, if $A_nneq B_n$, then}\
left|f(a)-f(b)right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}+sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geq\
geqleft|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|-left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{1}{2^n}-dfrac{1}{2^n}=0
end{array}$$



I think I must have done something wrong because I wanted $|f(a)-f(b)|$ to be greater than or equal to something in terms of $m$ or $n$ so that I can say choose $n$ (or $m$) such that (something like) $dfrac{1}{2^n}<varepsilon$, but I just got 0 instead. How can I improve my proof so that I can achieve this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Dec 1 '18 at 22:50










  • $begingroup$
    The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:12
















1












$begingroup$


Consider the Cantor Set $C={0,1}^{omega}$, that is, the space of all sequences $(b_1,b_2,...)$ with each $b_iin{0,1}$. Define $g:Crightarrow[0,1]$ by $$g(b_1,b_2,...)=sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}dfrac{b_i}{2^i}$$ In other words, $g(b_1,b_2,...)$ is the real number whose digits in base 2 are $0.b_1b_2...$



Prove that $g$ is continuous.



Here is my attempt:



Let sequences $(a_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ and $(b_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be elements of the Cantor Set $C.$ For fixed $ninmathbb{N}$ let $A_n=(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ and $B_n=(b_1,b_2,...,b_n)$ be the first $n$ terms in each of those sequences. If $A_nneq B_n$, then $exists m=min{kin{1,2,...,n}:a_kneq b_k}$ and the following holds:
$$begin{array}{c}
left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-left|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geq\ geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k} \
text{where $|a_m-b_m|$=1 and}\
sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leq sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^m}\
text{Now,}\
left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|leq\
leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^n}\
text{Therefore, if $A_nneq B_n$, then}\
left|f(a)-f(b)right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}+sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geq\
geqleft|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|-left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{1}{2^n}-dfrac{1}{2^n}=0
end{array}$$



I think I must have done something wrong because I wanted $|f(a)-f(b)|$ to be greater than or equal to something in terms of $m$ or $n$ so that I can say choose $n$ (or $m$) such that (something like) $dfrac{1}{2^n}<varepsilon$, but I just got 0 instead. How can I improve my proof so that I can achieve this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Dec 1 '18 at 22:50










  • $begingroup$
    The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:12














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Consider the Cantor Set $C={0,1}^{omega}$, that is, the space of all sequences $(b_1,b_2,...)$ with each $b_iin{0,1}$. Define $g:Crightarrow[0,1]$ by $$g(b_1,b_2,...)=sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}dfrac{b_i}{2^i}$$ In other words, $g(b_1,b_2,...)$ is the real number whose digits in base 2 are $0.b_1b_2...$



Prove that $g$ is continuous.



Here is my attempt:



Let sequences $(a_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ and $(b_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be elements of the Cantor Set $C.$ For fixed $ninmathbb{N}$ let $A_n=(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ and $B_n=(b_1,b_2,...,b_n)$ be the first $n$ terms in each of those sequences. If $A_nneq B_n$, then $exists m=min{kin{1,2,...,n}:a_kneq b_k}$ and the following holds:
$$begin{array}{c}
left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-left|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geq\ geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k} \
text{where $|a_m-b_m|$=1 and}\
sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leq sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^m}\
text{Now,}\
left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|leq\
leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^n}\
text{Therefore, if $A_nneq B_n$, then}\
left|f(a)-f(b)right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}+sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geq\
geqleft|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|-left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{1}{2^n}-dfrac{1}{2^n}=0
end{array}$$



I think I must have done something wrong because I wanted $|f(a)-f(b)|$ to be greater than or equal to something in terms of $m$ or $n$ so that I can say choose $n$ (or $m$) such that (something like) $dfrac{1}{2^n}<varepsilon$, but I just got 0 instead. How can I improve my proof so that I can achieve this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Consider the Cantor Set $C={0,1}^{omega}$, that is, the space of all sequences $(b_1,b_2,...)$ with each $b_iin{0,1}$. Define $g:Crightarrow[0,1]$ by $$g(b_1,b_2,...)=sumlimits_{i=1}^{infty}dfrac{b_i}{2^i}$$ In other words, $g(b_1,b_2,...)$ is the real number whose digits in base 2 are $0.b_1b_2...$



Prove that $g$ is continuous.



Here is my attempt:



Let sequences $(a_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ and $(b_n)_{ninmathbb{N}}$ be elements of the Cantor Set $C.$ For fixed $ninmathbb{N}$ let $A_n=(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ and $B_n=(b_1,b_2,...,b_n)$ be the first $n$ terms in each of those sequences. If $A_nneq B_n$, then $exists m=min{kin{1,2,...,n}:a_kneq b_k}$ and the following holds:
$$begin{array}{c}
left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-left|sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{a_k}{2^k}-dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|geq\ geqdfrac{|a_m-b_m|}{2^m}-sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k} \
text{where $|a_m-b_m|$=1 and}\
sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leq sumlimits_{k=m+1}^ndfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^m}\
text{Now,}\
left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k}{2^k}-sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|leq\
leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{|a_k-b_k|}{2^k}leqsumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{1}{2^k}=dfrac{1}{2^n}\
text{Therefore, if $A_nneq B_n$, then}\
left|f(a)-f(b)right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|=left|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}+sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geq\
geqleft|sumlimits_{k=1}^{n}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|-left|sumlimits_{k=n+1}^{infty}dfrac{a_k-b_k}{2^k}right|geqdfrac{1}{2^n}-dfrac{1}{2^n}=0
end{array}$$



I think I must have done something wrong because I wanted $|f(a)-f(b)|$ to be greater than or equal to something in terms of $m$ or $n$ so that I can say choose $n$ (or $m$) such that (something like) $dfrac{1}{2^n}<varepsilon$, but I just got 0 instead. How can I improve my proof so that I can achieve this?







real-analysis general-topology continuity cantor-set






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




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edited Dec 1 '18 at 23:43







111

















asked Dec 1 '18 at 22:47









111111

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275












  • $begingroup$
    What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Dec 1 '18 at 22:50










  • $begingroup$
    The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:12


















  • $begingroup$
    What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Dec 1 '18 at 22:50










  • $begingroup$
    The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:12
















$begingroup$
What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Dec 1 '18 at 22:50




$begingroup$
What topology are you putting on the set of sequences (as an aside I don't think I have ever seen that set called the Cantor set before).
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Dec 1 '18 at 22:50












$begingroup$
The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 1 '18 at 23:12




$begingroup$
The question didn't specify a specific topology, sorry.
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 1 '18 at 23:12










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Your method of proof will work. Taking your idea, I think we can streamline it, in the following way:



Let $epsilon>0$ be given and let $(epsilon_k)$ be the binary sequence representing $epsilon.$ Take the ternary sequence for the $delta$ (that we will show to work) to be $delta_k=2epsilon_k$.



Now, let $N$ be the first non-zero digit of $delta$ and $epsilon.$ Then, if $|x-y|<delta$, it must be the case that $x$ and $y$ agree on the first $N-1$ digits. Hence, the first $N-1$ digits of $g(x)$ and $g(y)$ are the same, as well, by definition of $g$. But then, $|g(x)-g(y)|<epsilon.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 2 '18 at 2:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 2 '18 at 3:02



















2












$begingroup$

You can prove a homeomorphism from $[0,1]^omega$ with the product topology to the same set with the dictionary topology, and then use the fact that the functions from $[0,1]^omega$ to $[0,1]$ are continuous as open sets in $[0,1]$ will give an open preimage in the dictionary order.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:37










  • $begingroup$
    (1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
    $endgroup$
    – NL1992
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:40











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Your method of proof will work. Taking your idea, I think we can streamline it, in the following way:



Let $epsilon>0$ be given and let $(epsilon_k)$ be the binary sequence representing $epsilon.$ Take the ternary sequence for the $delta$ (that we will show to work) to be $delta_k=2epsilon_k$.



Now, let $N$ be the first non-zero digit of $delta$ and $epsilon.$ Then, if $|x-y|<delta$, it must be the case that $x$ and $y$ agree on the first $N-1$ digits. Hence, the first $N-1$ digits of $g(x)$ and $g(y)$ are the same, as well, by definition of $g$. But then, $|g(x)-g(y)|<epsilon.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 2 '18 at 2:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 2 '18 at 3:02
















1












$begingroup$

Your method of proof will work. Taking your idea, I think we can streamline it, in the following way:



Let $epsilon>0$ be given and let $(epsilon_k)$ be the binary sequence representing $epsilon.$ Take the ternary sequence for the $delta$ (that we will show to work) to be $delta_k=2epsilon_k$.



Now, let $N$ be the first non-zero digit of $delta$ and $epsilon.$ Then, if $|x-y|<delta$, it must be the case that $x$ and $y$ agree on the first $N-1$ digits. Hence, the first $N-1$ digits of $g(x)$ and $g(y)$ are the same, as well, by definition of $g$. But then, $|g(x)-g(y)|<epsilon.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 2 '18 at 2:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 2 '18 at 3:02














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Your method of proof will work. Taking your idea, I think we can streamline it, in the following way:



Let $epsilon>0$ be given and let $(epsilon_k)$ be the binary sequence representing $epsilon.$ Take the ternary sequence for the $delta$ (that we will show to work) to be $delta_k=2epsilon_k$.



Now, let $N$ be the first non-zero digit of $delta$ and $epsilon.$ Then, if $|x-y|<delta$, it must be the case that $x$ and $y$ agree on the first $N-1$ digits. Hence, the first $N-1$ digits of $g(x)$ and $g(y)$ are the same, as well, by definition of $g$. But then, $|g(x)-g(y)|<epsilon.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Your method of proof will work. Taking your idea, I think we can streamline it, in the following way:



Let $epsilon>0$ be given and let $(epsilon_k)$ be the binary sequence representing $epsilon.$ Take the ternary sequence for the $delta$ (that we will show to work) to be $delta_k=2epsilon_k$.



Now, let $N$ be the first non-zero digit of $delta$ and $epsilon.$ Then, if $|x-y|<delta$, it must be the case that $x$ and $y$ agree on the first $N-1$ digits. Hence, the first $N-1$ digits of $g(x)$ and $g(y)$ are the same, as well, by definition of $g$. But then, $|g(x)-g(y)|<epsilon.$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 2 '18 at 2:28









MatematletaMatematleta

10.4k2918




10.4k2918












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 2 '18 at 2:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 2 '18 at 3:02


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 2 '18 at 2:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    Dec 2 '18 at 3:02
















$begingroup$
Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 2 '18 at 2:56




$begingroup$
Thank you for your help. Should I omit the calculation in my proof that's says that $|f(a)-f(b)|geq0$? This calculation does not seem to help me at all
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 2 '18 at 2:56




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 2 '18 at 3:02




$begingroup$
Yes, you can delete it, because all you have proven there is that if two numbers are not equal, then the absolute value of their difference is positive, which is, of course, true. Your basic idea is good, though.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
Dec 2 '18 at 3:02











2












$begingroup$

You can prove a homeomorphism from $[0,1]^omega$ with the product topology to the same set with the dictionary topology, and then use the fact that the functions from $[0,1]^omega$ to $[0,1]$ are continuous as open sets in $[0,1]$ will give an open preimage in the dictionary order.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:37










  • $begingroup$
    (1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
    $endgroup$
    – NL1992
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:40
















2












$begingroup$

You can prove a homeomorphism from $[0,1]^omega$ with the product topology to the same set with the dictionary topology, and then use the fact that the functions from $[0,1]^omega$ to $[0,1]$ are continuous as open sets in $[0,1]$ will give an open preimage in the dictionary order.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:37










  • $begingroup$
    (1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
    $endgroup$
    – NL1992
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:40














2












2








2





$begingroup$

You can prove a homeomorphism from $[0,1]^omega$ with the product topology to the same set with the dictionary topology, and then use the fact that the functions from $[0,1]^omega$ to $[0,1]$ are continuous as open sets in $[0,1]$ will give an open preimage in the dictionary order.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



You can prove a homeomorphism from $[0,1]^omega$ with the product topology to the same set with the dictionary topology, and then use the fact that the functions from $[0,1]^omega$ to $[0,1]$ are continuous as open sets in $[0,1]$ will give an open preimage in the dictionary order.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 1 '18 at 23:18









NL1992NL1992

7311




7311












  • $begingroup$
    I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:37










  • $begingroup$
    (1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
    $endgroup$
    – NL1992
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:40


















  • $begingroup$
    I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
    $endgroup$
    – 111
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:37










  • $begingroup$
    (1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
    $endgroup$
    – NL1992
    Dec 1 '18 at 23:40
















$begingroup$
I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 1 '18 at 23:37




$begingroup$
I don't think $g$ is injective, is it?
$endgroup$
– 111
Dec 1 '18 at 23:37












$begingroup$
(1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 1 '18 at 23:40




$begingroup$
(1,0,0,...) and (0,1,1,...) will give the same number, so it isn't.
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 1 '18 at 23:40


















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