Help proving there is a sequence of rational numbers












3












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove the following:



Let $Bbb Q$ be the countable set of rational numbers and ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ be a sequence such that for every q $in$ $Bbb Q$ there is a $n in Bbb N$ with $x_n = q$. Prove that there is such a sequence ${x_n}$.



My initial thoughts for an attempt at a solution:



We know that $|Bbb Q| = |Bbb N|$ by the Cantor Theorem. Further, I can show that there is a bijection between $Bbb Q$ and $Bbb N$.



If I define ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ as some relation between $(p,q) in Bbb Z times Bbb Z$, will ths properly prove that such a sequence exists?










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  • $begingroup$
    For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Shelby
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:20










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:19










  • $begingroup$
    You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:22
















3












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove the following:



Let $Bbb Q$ be the countable set of rational numbers and ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ be a sequence such that for every q $in$ $Bbb Q$ there is a $n in Bbb N$ with $x_n = q$. Prove that there is such a sequence ${x_n}$.



My initial thoughts for an attempt at a solution:



We know that $|Bbb Q| = |Bbb N|$ by the Cantor Theorem. Further, I can show that there is a bijection between $Bbb Q$ and $Bbb N$.



If I define ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ as some relation between $(p,q) in Bbb Z times Bbb Z$, will ths properly prove that such a sequence exists?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Shelby
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:20










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:19










  • $begingroup$
    You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:22














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove the following:



Let $Bbb Q$ be the countable set of rational numbers and ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ be a sequence such that for every q $in$ $Bbb Q$ there is a $n in Bbb N$ with $x_n = q$. Prove that there is such a sequence ${x_n}$.



My initial thoughts for an attempt at a solution:



We know that $|Bbb Q| = |Bbb N|$ by the Cantor Theorem. Further, I can show that there is a bijection between $Bbb Q$ and $Bbb N$.



If I define ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ as some relation between $(p,q) in Bbb Z times Bbb Z$, will ths properly prove that such a sequence exists?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm trying to prove the following:



Let $Bbb Q$ be the countable set of rational numbers and ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ be a sequence such that for every q $in$ $Bbb Q$ there is a $n in Bbb N$ with $x_n = q$. Prove that there is such a sequence ${x_n}$.



My initial thoughts for an attempt at a solution:



We know that $|Bbb Q| = |Bbb N|$ by the Cantor Theorem. Further, I can show that there is a bijection between $Bbb Q$ and $Bbb N$.



If I define ${x_n}_{n=1}^infty$ as some relation between $(p,q) in Bbb Z times Bbb Z$, will ths properly prove that such a sequence exists?







real-analysis proof-writing rational-numbers natural-numbers






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 9 '18 at 17:01







user624612



















  • $begingroup$
    For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Shelby
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:20










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:19










  • $begingroup$
    You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:22


















  • $begingroup$
    For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas Shelby
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:20










  • $begingroup$
    What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:19










  • $begingroup$
    You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Dec 9 '18 at 20:22
















$begingroup$
For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
$endgroup$
– Thomas Shelby
Dec 9 '18 at 17:15




$begingroup$
For an explicit bijection, see -math.stackexchange.com/questions/7643/…
$endgroup$
– Thomas Shelby
Dec 9 '18 at 17:15




1




1




$begingroup$
Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
$endgroup$
– user624612
Dec 9 '18 at 17:20




$begingroup$
Thanks Thomas! This is wonderful to see!
$endgroup$
– user624612
Dec 9 '18 at 17:20












$begingroup$
What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 9 '18 at 20:19




$begingroup$
What is the definition of an infinite sequence ${x_n}_{nin Bbb N} $? It's a function $ f$ with domain $Bbb N,$ except we write $x_n$ for $f(n)$..... And $|Bbb Q|=|Bbb N$| is an abbreviation for, or an equivalent to, the statement that there exists a bijection $f:Bbb Nto Bbb Q.$ And that's all there is to it.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 9 '18 at 20:19












$begingroup$
You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 9 '18 at 20:22




$begingroup$
You may enjoy the small book Stories About Sets, by Vilenkin.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Dec 9 '18 at 20:22










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

It is actually quit easy once you know that $|mathbb{Q}|=|mathbb{N}|$ as this implies that there exists a bijection $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Q}$. Now simply let $x_n = f(n)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:23



















0












$begingroup$

The answer to this question is going to depend upon what you have available as definitions. Where I come from, a sequence of elements from a set $S$ is just a function $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow S$; if that is the case for you, since you already know there is a bijection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Q}$ you are done!



If you wanted to explicitly write down such a sequence, then yes, you will probably want to start with a surjection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$, and then a surjection from $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ to $mathbb{Q}$. The composition of these functions will be a sequence that hits every rational number.



How to build such surjections? You could define $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ in pieces, say by sending numbers of the form $2^i3^j$ to $(i,j)$, numbers of the form $5^i7^j$ to $(-i,-j)$, numbers of the form $11^i13^j$ to $(i,-j)$, and numbers of the form $17^i19^j$ to $(-i,j)$, with everything else sent to $(0,0)$. You could define $g:mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z} rightarrow mathbb{Q}$ by sending $(0,q)$ and $(p,0)$ to $0$, and all other $(p,q)$ to $p/q$.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    It is actually quit easy once you know that $|mathbb{Q}|=|mathbb{N}|$ as this implies that there exists a bijection $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Q}$. Now simply let $x_n = f(n)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
      $endgroup$
      – user624612
      Dec 9 '18 at 17:23
















    0












    $begingroup$

    It is actually quit easy once you know that $|mathbb{Q}|=|mathbb{N}|$ as this implies that there exists a bijection $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Q}$. Now simply let $x_n = f(n)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
      $endgroup$
      – user624612
      Dec 9 '18 at 17:23














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    It is actually quit easy once you know that $|mathbb{Q}|=|mathbb{N}|$ as this implies that there exists a bijection $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Q}$. Now simply let $x_n = f(n)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    It is actually quit easy once you know that $|mathbb{Q}|=|mathbb{N}|$ as this implies that there exists a bijection $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Q}$. Now simply let $x_n = f(n)$.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Dec 9 '18 at 17:11









    YankoYanko

    7,0081629




    7,0081629












    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
      $endgroup$
      – user624612
      Dec 9 '18 at 17:23


















    • $begingroup$
      Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
      $endgroup$
      – user624612
      Dec 9 '18 at 17:23
















    $begingroup$
    Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:23




    $begingroup$
    Thank you! This makes sense! I didn't know if much more was needed other than defining the bijective mapping, but it seems that this is about it.
    $endgroup$
    – user624612
    Dec 9 '18 at 17:23











    0












    $begingroup$

    The answer to this question is going to depend upon what you have available as definitions. Where I come from, a sequence of elements from a set $S$ is just a function $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow S$; if that is the case for you, since you already know there is a bijection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Q}$ you are done!



    If you wanted to explicitly write down such a sequence, then yes, you will probably want to start with a surjection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$, and then a surjection from $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ to $mathbb{Q}$. The composition of these functions will be a sequence that hits every rational number.



    How to build such surjections? You could define $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ in pieces, say by sending numbers of the form $2^i3^j$ to $(i,j)$, numbers of the form $5^i7^j$ to $(-i,-j)$, numbers of the form $11^i13^j$ to $(i,-j)$, and numbers of the form $17^i19^j$ to $(-i,j)$, with everything else sent to $(0,0)$. You could define $g:mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z} rightarrow mathbb{Q}$ by sending $(0,q)$ and $(p,0)$ to $0$, and all other $(p,q)$ to $p/q$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      The answer to this question is going to depend upon what you have available as definitions. Where I come from, a sequence of elements from a set $S$ is just a function $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow S$; if that is the case for you, since you already know there is a bijection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Q}$ you are done!



      If you wanted to explicitly write down such a sequence, then yes, you will probably want to start with a surjection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$, and then a surjection from $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ to $mathbb{Q}$. The composition of these functions will be a sequence that hits every rational number.



      How to build such surjections? You could define $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ in pieces, say by sending numbers of the form $2^i3^j$ to $(i,j)$, numbers of the form $5^i7^j$ to $(-i,-j)$, numbers of the form $11^i13^j$ to $(i,-j)$, and numbers of the form $17^i19^j$ to $(-i,j)$, with everything else sent to $(0,0)$. You could define $g:mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z} rightarrow mathbb{Q}$ by sending $(0,q)$ and $(p,0)$ to $0$, and all other $(p,q)$ to $p/q$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The answer to this question is going to depend upon what you have available as definitions. Where I come from, a sequence of elements from a set $S$ is just a function $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow S$; if that is the case for you, since you already know there is a bijection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Q}$ you are done!



        If you wanted to explicitly write down such a sequence, then yes, you will probably want to start with a surjection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$, and then a surjection from $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ to $mathbb{Q}$. The composition of these functions will be a sequence that hits every rational number.



        How to build such surjections? You could define $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ in pieces, say by sending numbers of the form $2^i3^j$ to $(i,j)$, numbers of the form $5^i7^j$ to $(-i,-j)$, numbers of the form $11^i13^j$ to $(i,-j)$, and numbers of the form $17^i19^j$ to $(-i,j)$, with everything else sent to $(0,0)$. You could define $g:mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z} rightarrow mathbb{Q}$ by sending $(0,q)$ and $(p,0)$ to $0$, and all other $(p,q)$ to $p/q$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The answer to this question is going to depend upon what you have available as definitions. Where I come from, a sequence of elements from a set $S$ is just a function $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow S$; if that is the case for you, since you already know there is a bijection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Q}$ you are done!



        If you wanted to explicitly write down such a sequence, then yes, you will probably want to start with a surjection from $mathbb{N}$ to $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$, and then a surjection from $mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ to $mathbb{Q}$. The composition of these functions will be a sequence that hits every rational number.



        How to build such surjections? You could define $f:mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z}$ in pieces, say by sending numbers of the form $2^i3^j$ to $(i,j)$, numbers of the form $5^i7^j$ to $(-i,-j)$, numbers of the form $11^i13^j$ to $(i,-j)$, and numbers of the form $17^i19^j$ to $(-i,j)$, with everything else sent to $(0,0)$. You could define $g:mathbb{Z}times mathbb{Z} rightarrow mathbb{Q}$ by sending $(0,q)$ and $(p,0)$ to $0$, and all other $(p,q)$ to $p/q$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 9 '18 at 17:19

























        answered Dec 9 '18 at 17:12









        GenericMathematicianGenericMathematician

        863




        863






























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