$P(X>0,Y>0)$ for a bivariate normal distribution with correlation $rho$












2












$begingroup$


$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.



I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.



Using this I need to show that



$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:03










  • $begingroup$
    it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:12










  • $begingroup$
    @user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
    $endgroup$
    – Seyhmus Güngören
    Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
















2












$begingroup$


$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.



I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.



Using this I need to show that



$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:03










  • $begingroup$
    it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:12










  • $begingroup$
    @user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
    $endgroup$
    – Seyhmus Güngören
    Dec 10 '12 at 12:23














2












2








2


6



$begingroup$


$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.



I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.



Using this I need to show that



$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$X$ and $Y$ have a bivariate normal distribution with $rho$ as covariance. $X$ and $Y$ are standard normal variables.



I showed that $X$ and $Z= {frac{Y-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}}$ are independent standard normal variables.



Using this I need to show that



$$P(X >0,Y>0) = frac14 + frac{1}{2pi} cdotmathrm{arcsin}(rho).$$







probability probability-distributions normal-distribution bivariate-distributions






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 12 '18 at 22:56









grand_chat

20.4k11327




20.4k11327










asked Dec 10 '12 at 10:51









user669083user669083

4312920




4312920












  • $begingroup$
    As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:03










  • $begingroup$
    it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:12










  • $begingroup$
    @user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
    $endgroup$
    – Seyhmus Güngören
    Dec 10 '12 at 12:23


















  • $begingroup$
    As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:03










  • $begingroup$
    it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:10










  • $begingroup$
    Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 11:12










  • $begingroup$
    @user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
    $endgroup$
    – Seyhmus Güngören
    Dec 10 '12 at 12:23
















$begingroup$
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
$endgroup$
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03




$begingroup$
As a hint for the first question, notice that $Z$ is the conditional of $Y$ on $X$.
$endgroup$
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:03












$begingroup$
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
$endgroup$
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10




$begingroup$
it is easy to solve part. As X and Y are standard normal variables. But I am stuck at part two.
$endgroup$
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10












$begingroup$
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
$endgroup$
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10




$begingroup$
If it is easy for part 1, why are you asking the question?
$endgroup$
– Learner
Dec 10 '12 at 11:10












$begingroup$
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
$endgroup$
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12




$begingroup$
Because the second part is to use first part to solve second.
$endgroup$
– user669083
Dec 10 '12 at 11:12












$begingroup$
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
$endgroup$
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23




$begingroup$
@user669083 Learner is right. If you want an answer for part II, then you shouldnt say: "I had to show..." You need to say "using the fact that .....", I need to show : "part II"
$endgroup$
– Seyhmus Güngören
Dec 10 '12 at 12:23










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















10












$begingroup$

Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
$left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
$varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
begin{eqnarray*}
left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
sin varphi, W right)\
left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
end{eqnarray*}
Implying
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
& = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
& = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
end{eqnarray*}





Here is an alternative proof:



Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
begin{eqnarray*}
P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
& = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
end{eqnarray*}
Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
simplifications
$$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
$$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    is there a simpler solution ?
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 17:58










  • $begingroup$
    @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 1:08










  • $begingroup$
    Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
    $endgroup$
    – user52613
    Dec 11 '12 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 10:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 16 '12 at 9:52





















2












$begingroup$

Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
$$
P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
$$

Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
$$
begin{align}
int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
&=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
&=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
end{align}
$$

for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    10












    $begingroup$

    Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
    $left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
    $varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
    distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
    begin{eqnarray*}
    left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
    sin varphi, W right)\
    left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
    end{eqnarray*}
    Implying
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
    sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
    & = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
    frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
    & = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
    end{eqnarray*}





    Here is an alternative proof:



    Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
    frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
    right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
    z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
    end{eqnarray*}
    Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
    simplifications
    $$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
    sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
    By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
    K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
    frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
    $$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      is there a simpler solution ?
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 10 '12 at 17:58










    • $begingroup$
      @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 1:08










    • $begingroup$
      Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
      $endgroup$
      – user52613
      Dec 11 '12 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 10:34






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 16 '12 at 9:52


















    10












    $begingroup$

    Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
    $left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
    $varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
    distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
    begin{eqnarray*}
    left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
    sin varphi, W right)\
    left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
    end{eqnarray*}
    Implying
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
    sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
    & = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
    frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
    & = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
    end{eqnarray*}





    Here is an alternative proof:



    Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
    frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
    right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
    z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
    end{eqnarray*}
    Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
    simplifications
    $$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
    sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
    By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
    K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
    frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
    $$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      is there a simpler solution ?
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 10 '12 at 17:58










    • $begingroup$
      @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 1:08










    • $begingroup$
      Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
      $endgroup$
      – user52613
      Dec 11 '12 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 10:34






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 16 '12 at 9:52
















    10












    10








    10





    $begingroup$

    Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
    $left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
    $varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
    distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
    begin{eqnarray*}
    left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
    sin varphi, W right)\
    left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
    end{eqnarray*}
    Implying
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
    sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
    & = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
    frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
    & = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
    end{eqnarray*}





    Here is an alternative proof:



    Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
    frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
    right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
    z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
    end{eqnarray*}
    Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
    simplifications
    $$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
    sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
    By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
    K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
    frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
    $$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Let $left( V, W right)$ be i.i.d standard normal, let $U$ be uniform on
    $left[ - pi, pi right)$ independent of $R = sqrt{V^2 + W^2}$ and let
    $varphi = arcsin rho$. Then the following vectors have the same
    distributions (think about the Box-Muller transformation)
    begin{eqnarray*}
    left( X, Y right) & overset{d}{=} & sqrt{2} left( V cos varphi + W
    sin varphi, W right)\
    left( V, W right) & overset{d}{=} & R left( cos U, sin U right)
    end{eqnarray*}
    Implying
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ cos U cos varphi + sin U
    sin varphi > 0, sin U > 0 right]\
    & = & P left[ U in left( varphi - frac{pi}{2}, varphi +
    frac{pi}{2} right) cap left( 0, pi right) right]\
    & = & frac{varphi}{2 pi} + frac{1}{4}
    end{eqnarray*}





    Here is an alternative proof:



    Let $phi$ be the density of the standard normal distribution
    begin{eqnarray*}
    P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] & = & P left[ X < 0, Y < 0 right]\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^0
    frac{1}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}} phi left( frac{x - rho z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}
    right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z\
    & = & int_{- infty}^0 phi left( z right) int_{- infty}^{- frac{rho
    z}{sqrt{1 - rho^2}}} phi left( x right) mathrm{d} x mathrm{d} z
    end{eqnarray*}
    Let's call the above integral $h left( rho right)$, then after some
    simplifications
    $$frac{partial h left( rho right)}{partial rho} = frac{1}{2 pi
    sqrt{1 - rho^2}} $$
    By integrating back (or considering the problem as a first-order ordinary differential equation), $h left( rho right) = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho +
    K$ where $K$ is some constant. By the special case of independence, $h left( 0 right) =
    frac{1}{4}$, you get the final solution
    $$ P left[ X > 0, Y > 0 right] = frac{1}{2 pi} arcsin rho + frac{1}{4}$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 11 '12 at 12:45

























    answered Dec 10 '12 at 12:01









    LearnerLearner

    5,08022034




    5,08022034












    • $begingroup$
      is there a simpler solution ?
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 10 '12 at 17:58










    • $begingroup$
      @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 1:08










    • $begingroup$
      Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
      $endgroup$
      – user52613
      Dec 11 '12 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 10:34






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 16 '12 at 9:52




















    • $begingroup$
      is there a simpler solution ?
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 10 '12 at 17:58










    • $begingroup$
      @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 1:08










    • $begingroup$
      Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
      $endgroup$
      – user52613
      Dec 11 '12 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
      $endgroup$
      – Learner
      Dec 11 '12 at 10:34






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
      $endgroup$
      – user669083
      Dec 16 '12 at 9:52


















    $begingroup$
    is there a simpler solution ?
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 17:58




    $begingroup$
    is there a simpler solution ?
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 10 '12 at 17:58












    $begingroup$
    @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 1:08




    $begingroup$
    @user669083 If you do not understand the above proof, you should point to the part where you have problems. Anyway, I am going to add an alternative proof (I am not sure it is simpler).
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 1:08












    $begingroup$
    Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
    $endgroup$
    – user52613
    Dec 11 '12 at 9:38




    $begingroup$
    Let's call the above integral h(ρ), then after some simplifications. What is your simplification? Thanks in advance.
    $endgroup$
    – user52613
    Dec 11 '12 at 9:38












    $begingroup$
    @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 10:34




    $begingroup$
    @Fafsads Please check en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule for how to differentiate with respect to $rho$. After that, all is needed is some simple manipulations of one-dimensional normal density integrals. Let me know after that if you are still having trouble.
    $endgroup$
    – Learner
    Dec 11 '12 at 10:34




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 16 '12 at 9:52






    $begingroup$
    I solved it by writing the equation as $(PX>0,Z> {frac{-rho X}{sqrt{(1-rho^2)}}})$. After that write in terms of integral, convert into polar co-ordinates and voila I got the answer
    $endgroup$
    – user669083
    Dec 16 '12 at 9:52













    2












    $begingroup$

    Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
    $$
    P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
    $$

    Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
    $$
    begin{align}
    int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
    &=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
    &=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
    end{align}
    $$

    for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
      $$
      P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
      $$

      Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
      $$
      begin{align}
      int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
      &=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
      &=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
      end{align}
      $$

      for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
        $$
        P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
        $$

        Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
        $$
        begin{align}
        int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
        &=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
        &=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
        end{align}
        $$

        for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Using the OP's hint: The event ${X>0,Y>0}$ is the same as the event ${X>0,Z>frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}X}$, where now $X$ and $Z$ are independent standard normal variables. Writing $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ for brevity, the desired probability is expressible as a double integral involving the joint density of $(X,Z)$:
        $$
        P(X>0,Y>0)=P(X>0,Z>aX)=int_{x=0}^inftyint_{z=ax}^inftyfrac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-x^2/2}frac1{sqrt{2pi}}e^{-z^2/2},dz,dx.
        $$

        Switching to polar coordinates, this equals
        $$
        begin{align}
        int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}int_{r=0}^inftyfrac1{2pi}e^{-r^2/2},rdrdtheta&=int_{theta=arctan(a)}^{pi/2}frac1{2pi},dtheta\
        &=frac1{2pi}left(fracpi2-arctan aright)\
        &=frac14+frac1{2pi}arctanfracrho{sqrt{1-rho^2}};
        end{align}
        $$

        for the last equality we substitute $a:=frac{-rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}}$ and use the fact that the arctan function is odd. To finish off, remember that if $thetain[-pi/2,pi/2]$ then $$theta=arctanfrac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow tantheta=frac{rho}{sqrt{1-rho^2}} Longleftrightarrow sintheta=rho Longleftrightarrow theta=arcsin rho.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 12 '18 at 22:44









        grand_chatgrand_chat

        20.4k11327




        20.4k11327






























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