Let $P$ be prime and contain $IJ$, the product ideal. Then $I subset P$ or $J subset P$












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So I already witness the solution. It is this: Assume $I notsubset P$, then there is $i notin P$. Then the product $ij in IJ subset P$, but since $P$ is prime, $i in P$ or $j in P$, so $J subset P$.



here is what I don't get. Doesn't this only show a finite truncation belongs to $P$? Don't we have to show that for any finite sum $i_1j_1 + dots + i_nj_n in P$, $i_n in P$ for every $n$ (assuming $|J| = |I| = n$ for ease of argument)










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  • $begingroup$
    What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
    $endgroup$
    – user370967
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
    $endgroup$
    – Hawk
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 22 '18 at 16:56
















0












$begingroup$


So I already witness the solution. It is this: Assume $I notsubset P$, then there is $i notin P$. Then the product $ij in IJ subset P$, but since $P$ is prime, $i in P$ or $j in P$, so $J subset P$.



here is what I don't get. Doesn't this only show a finite truncation belongs to $P$? Don't we have to show that for any finite sum $i_1j_1 + dots + i_nj_n in P$, $i_n in P$ for every $n$ (assuming $|J| = |I| = n$ for ease of argument)










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
    $endgroup$
    – user370967
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
    $endgroup$
    – Hawk
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 22 '18 at 16:56














0












0








0





$begingroup$


So I already witness the solution. It is this: Assume $I notsubset P$, then there is $i notin P$. Then the product $ij in IJ subset P$, but since $P$ is prime, $i in P$ or $j in P$, so $J subset P$.



here is what I don't get. Doesn't this only show a finite truncation belongs to $P$? Don't we have to show that for any finite sum $i_1j_1 + dots + i_nj_n in P$, $i_n in P$ for every $n$ (assuming $|J| = |I| = n$ for ease of argument)










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




So I already witness the solution. It is this: Assume $I notsubset P$, then there is $i notin P$. Then the product $ij in IJ subset P$, but since $P$ is prime, $i in P$ or $j in P$, so $J subset P$.



here is what I don't get. Doesn't this only show a finite truncation belongs to $P$? Don't we have to show that for any finite sum $i_1j_1 + dots + i_nj_n in P$, $i_n in P$ for every $n$ (assuming $|J| = |I| = n$ for ease of argument)







abstract-algebra ring-theory proof-explanation






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asked Dec 22 '18 at 9:08









HawkHawk

5,5851140110




5,5851140110












  • $begingroup$
    What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
    $endgroup$
    – user370967
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
    $endgroup$
    – Hawk
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 22 '18 at 16:56


















  • $begingroup$
    What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
    $endgroup$
    – user370967
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:14








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
    $endgroup$
    – Hawk
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:15










  • $begingroup$
    @Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
    $endgroup$
    – rschwieb
    Dec 22 '18 at 16:56
















$begingroup$
What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Dec 22 '18 at 9:14




$begingroup$
What does $|I|$ mean? At any rate, while it is true that such finite sums belong to $IJ$, you don't need to use that fact - it surely is true that $ijin IJ$ and this is enough.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Dec 22 '18 at 9:14




1




1




$begingroup$
What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
$endgroup$
– user370967
Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






$begingroup$
What is your definition of prime ideal? This definition is the one that works in non-commutative settings.
$endgroup$
– user370967
Dec 22 '18 at 9:14






1




1




$begingroup$
@Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
$endgroup$
– Hawk
Dec 22 '18 at 9:15




$begingroup$
@Math_QED $ab in P$, then $a in P$ or $b in P.$
$endgroup$
– Hawk
Dec 22 '18 at 9:15












$begingroup$
@Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Dec 22 '18 at 16:56




$begingroup$
@Hawk If you are working with commutative rings, always be sure to use the [commutative-algebra] tag and/or mention commutativity in the post.
$endgroup$
– rschwieb
Dec 22 '18 at 16:56










2 Answers
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$begingroup$

Well, suppose $Inotsubset P$. Then there is $iin I$ such that $inotin P$. For EACH $jin J$, $ijin IJsubseteq P$ by hypothesis. But $P$ is prime and so $jin P$. Hence $Jsubseteq P$.






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    0












    $begingroup$

    The proof as written is phrased a little awkwardly and missing important details. Here is a correct proof (with everything spelled out):



    Suppose $IJ subset P$ and $I subsetneq P$. We wish to show that for all $j in J$, we have $j in P$. Fix $j in J$ $i in I setminus P$ and note that $ij in IJ$. Since $IJ subset P$, we have that $ij in P$ but $P$ is prime, so we must have that either $i in P$ or $j in P$. Since $i notin P$ (remember, $i in I setminus P$), we conclude that $j in J$. This shows that $J subset P$.



    As far as the finite sums go, they belong to $IJ$ and thus to $P$ by assumption.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      1












      $begingroup$

      Well, suppose $Inotsubset P$. Then there is $iin I$ such that $inotin P$. For EACH $jin J$, $ijin IJsubseteq P$ by hypothesis. But $P$ is prime and so $jin P$. Hence $Jsubseteq P$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        Well, suppose $Inotsubset P$. Then there is $iin I$ such that $inotin P$. For EACH $jin J$, $ijin IJsubseteq P$ by hypothesis. But $P$ is prime and so $jin P$. Hence $Jsubseteq P$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Well, suppose $Inotsubset P$. Then there is $iin I$ such that $inotin P$. For EACH $jin J$, $ijin IJsubseteq P$ by hypothesis. But $P$ is prime and so $jin P$. Hence $Jsubseteq P$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Well, suppose $Inotsubset P$. Then there is $iin I$ such that $inotin P$. For EACH $jin J$, $ijin IJsubseteq P$ by hypothesis. But $P$ is prime and so $jin P$. Hence $Jsubseteq P$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












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          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 22 '18 at 9:15









          WuestenfuxWuestenfux

          5,5581513




          5,5581513























              0












              $begingroup$

              The proof as written is phrased a little awkwardly and missing important details. Here is a correct proof (with everything spelled out):



              Suppose $IJ subset P$ and $I subsetneq P$. We wish to show that for all $j in J$, we have $j in P$. Fix $j in J$ $i in I setminus P$ and note that $ij in IJ$. Since $IJ subset P$, we have that $ij in P$ but $P$ is prime, so we must have that either $i in P$ or $j in P$. Since $i notin P$ (remember, $i in I setminus P$), we conclude that $j in J$. This shows that $J subset P$.



              As far as the finite sums go, they belong to $IJ$ and thus to $P$ by assumption.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                The proof as written is phrased a little awkwardly and missing important details. Here is a correct proof (with everything spelled out):



                Suppose $IJ subset P$ and $I subsetneq P$. We wish to show that for all $j in J$, we have $j in P$. Fix $j in J$ $i in I setminus P$ and note that $ij in IJ$. Since $IJ subset P$, we have that $ij in P$ but $P$ is prime, so we must have that either $i in P$ or $j in P$. Since $i notin P$ (remember, $i in I setminus P$), we conclude that $j in J$. This shows that $J subset P$.



                As far as the finite sums go, they belong to $IJ$ and thus to $P$ by assumption.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  The proof as written is phrased a little awkwardly and missing important details. Here is a correct proof (with everything spelled out):



                  Suppose $IJ subset P$ and $I subsetneq P$. We wish to show that for all $j in J$, we have $j in P$. Fix $j in J$ $i in I setminus P$ and note that $ij in IJ$. Since $IJ subset P$, we have that $ij in P$ but $P$ is prime, so we must have that either $i in P$ or $j in P$. Since $i notin P$ (remember, $i in I setminus P$), we conclude that $j in J$. This shows that $J subset P$.



                  As far as the finite sums go, they belong to $IJ$ and thus to $P$ by assumption.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The proof as written is phrased a little awkwardly and missing important details. Here is a correct proof (with everything spelled out):



                  Suppose $IJ subset P$ and $I subsetneq P$. We wish to show that for all $j in J$, we have $j in P$. Fix $j in J$ $i in I setminus P$ and note that $ij in IJ$. Since $IJ subset P$, we have that $ij in P$ but $P$ is prime, so we must have that either $i in P$ or $j in P$. Since $i notin P$ (remember, $i in I setminus P$), we conclude that $j in J$. This shows that $J subset P$.



                  As far as the finite sums go, they belong to $IJ$ and thus to $P$ by assumption.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 22 '18 at 9:16









                  Aniruddh AgarwalAniruddh Agarwal

                  1218




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