Can you please explain what's wrong with the following reasoning?











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Suppose we want to solve the following inequality



$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $



So we proceed as follows



$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $



$ x < -1 $



Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$



But the solution to the inequality is



$ Re - [-1, 0) $










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  • 4




    When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
    – Anurag A
    Nov 15 at 1:25










  • The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
    – abk
    Nov 15 at 1:39






  • 2




    @abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
    – mr_e_man
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • And also, 2 > 1
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:45















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Suppose we want to solve the following inequality



$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $



So we proceed as follows



$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $



$ x < -1 $



Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$



But the solution to the inequality is



$ Re - [-1, 0) $










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 4




    When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
    – Anurag A
    Nov 15 at 1:25










  • The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
    – abk
    Nov 15 at 1:39






  • 2




    @abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
    – mr_e_man
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • And also, 2 > 1
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:45













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Suppose we want to solve the following inequality



$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $



So we proceed as follows



$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $



$ x < -1 $



Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$



But the solution to the inequality is



$ Re - [-1, 0) $










share|cite|improve this question













Suppose we want to solve the following inequality



$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $



So we proceed as follows



$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $



$ x < -1 $



Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$



But the solution to the inequality is



$ Re - [-1, 0) $







algebra-precalculus inequality






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 15 at 1:24









Vinicius L. Deloi

6071410




6071410








  • 4




    When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
    – Anurag A
    Nov 15 at 1:25










  • The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
    – abk
    Nov 15 at 1:39






  • 2




    @abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
    – mr_e_man
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • And also, 2 > 1
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:45














  • 4




    When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
    – Anurag A
    Nov 15 at 1:25










  • The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
    – abk
    Nov 15 at 1:39






  • 2




    @abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
    – mr_e_man
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:44










  • And also, 2 > 1
    – Vinicius L. Deloi
    Nov 15 at 1:45








4




4




When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25




When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25












The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39




The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39




2




2




@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44




@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44












I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44




I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44












And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45




And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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up vote
2
down vote













The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$



For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$



One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    To avoid case analysis write
    $$
    frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
    $$

    From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.



      There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
      begin{align*}
      &
      frac{1}{x}>-1\
      Rightarrow & 1>-x\
      Rightarrow & -1<x\
      Rightarrow & x>-1\
      end{align*}



      So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.



      Then for $x<0$;



      begin{align*}
      &
      frac{1}{x}>-1\
      Rightarrow & 1<-x\
      Rightarrow & -1>x\
      Rightarrow & x<-1\
      end{align*}



      Putting the two cases together we have;



      $$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$



      EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
        – CoffeeCrow
        Nov 15 at 1:48


















      up vote
      0
      down vote













      That's a tricky one.



      Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.



      Hope that works.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

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        up vote
        2
        down vote













        The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$



        For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$



        One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          2
          down vote













          The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$



          For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$



          One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$



            For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$



            One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$



            For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$



            One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 15 at 1:35









            Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

            40.2k41958




            40.2k41958






















                up vote
                2
                down vote













                To avoid case analysis write
                $$
                frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
                $$

                From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote













                  To avoid case analysis write
                  $$
                  frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
                  $$

                  From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote









                    To avoid case analysis write
                    $$
                    frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
                    $$

                    From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    To avoid case analysis write
                    $$
                    frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
                    $$

                    From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 15 at 1:43









                    Foobaz John

                    19.6k41250




                    19.6k41250






















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.



                        There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1>-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1<x\
                        Rightarrow & x>-1\
                        end{align*}



                        So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.



                        Then for $x<0$;



                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1<-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1>x\
                        Rightarrow & x<-1\
                        end{align*}



                        Putting the two cases together we have;



                        $$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$



                        EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                        • If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                          – CoffeeCrow
                          Nov 15 at 1:48















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.



                        There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1>-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1<x\
                        Rightarrow & x>-1\
                        end{align*}



                        So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.



                        Then for $x<0$;



                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1<-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1>x\
                        Rightarrow & x<-1\
                        end{align*}



                        Putting the two cases together we have;



                        $$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$



                        EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                        • If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                          – CoffeeCrow
                          Nov 15 at 1:48













                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote









                        The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.



                        There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1>-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1<x\
                        Rightarrow & x>-1\
                        end{align*}



                        So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.



                        Then for $x<0$;



                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1<-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1>x\
                        Rightarrow & x<-1\
                        end{align*}



                        Putting the two cases together we have;



                        $$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$



                        EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.






                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.



                        There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1>-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1<x\
                        Rightarrow & x>-1\
                        end{align*}



                        So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.



                        Then for $x<0$;



                        begin{align*}
                        &
                        frac{1}{x}>-1\
                        Rightarrow & 1<-x\
                        Rightarrow & -1>x\
                        Rightarrow & x<-1\
                        end{align*}



                        Putting the two cases together we have;



                        $$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$



                        EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited Nov 15 at 1:50

























                        answered Nov 15 at 1:40









                        CoffeeCrow

                        556215




                        556215












                        • If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                          – CoffeeCrow
                          Nov 15 at 1:48


















                        • If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                          – CoffeeCrow
                          Nov 15 at 1:48
















                        If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                        – CoffeeCrow
                        Nov 15 at 1:48




                        If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
                        – CoffeeCrow
                        Nov 15 at 1:48










                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        That's a tricky one.



                        Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.



                        Hope that works.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          That's a tricky one.



                          Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.



                          Hope that works.






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            That's a tricky one.



                            Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.



                            Hope that works.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            That's a tricky one.



                            Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.



                            Hope that works.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 15 at 1:46









                            Sujit Bhattacharyya

                            811216




                            811216






























                                 

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