Can you please explain what's wrong with the following reasoning?
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Suppose we want to solve the following inequality
$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $
So we proceed as follows
$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $
$ x < -1 $
Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$
But the solution to the inequality is
$ Re - [-1, 0) $
algebra-precalculus inequality
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose we want to solve the following inequality
$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $
So we proceed as follows
$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $
$ x < -1 $
Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$
But the solution to the inequality is
$ Re - [-1, 0) $
algebra-precalculus inequality
4
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
2
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Suppose we want to solve the following inequality
$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $
So we proceed as follows
$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $
$ x < -1 $
Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$
But the solution to the inequality is
$ Re - [-1, 0) $
algebra-precalculus inequality
Suppose we want to solve the following inequality
$ frac{1}{x} + 1 >0 $
So we proceed as follows
$ frac{1}{x} > -1 $
$ x < -1 $
Thus $ x in (-infty, -1)$
But the solution to the inequality is
$ Re - [-1, 0) $
algebra-precalculus inequality
algebra-precalculus inequality
asked Nov 15 at 1:24
Vinicius L. Deloi
6071410
6071410
4
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
2
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45
|
show 1 more comment
4
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
2
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45
4
4
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
2
2
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45
|
show 1 more comment
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$
For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$
One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
To avoid case analysis write
$$
frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
$$
From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.
There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1>-x\
Rightarrow & -1<x\
Rightarrow & x>-1\
end{align*}
So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.
Then for $x<0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1<-x\
Rightarrow & -1>x\
Rightarrow & x<-1\
end{align*}
Putting the two cases together we have;
$$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$
EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
That's a tricky one.
Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.
Hope that works.
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$
For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$
One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$
For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$
One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$
For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$
One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.
The problem is that $$1/x >−1$$ does not imply $$ x<-1$$
For example for $x=5$ we have $1/5 >-1$ but $5>-1$
One has to be careful with inequalities involving variables.
answered Nov 15 at 1:35
Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
40.2k41958
40.2k41958
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
To avoid case analysis write
$$
frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
$$
From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
To avoid case analysis write
$$
frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
$$
From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
To avoid case analysis write
$$
frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
$$
From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.
To avoid case analysis write
$$
frac{1}{x}+1>0ifffrac{1+x}{x}>0ifffrac{x(1+x)}{x^2}>0.
$$
From here we see that $x(1+x)>0$ i.e. $x>0$ or $x<-1$.
answered Nov 15 at 1:43
Foobaz John
19.6k41250
19.6k41250
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.
There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1>-x\
Rightarrow & -1<x\
Rightarrow & x>-1\
end{align*}
So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.
Then for $x<0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1<-x\
Rightarrow & -1>x\
Rightarrow & x<-1\
end{align*}
Putting the two cases together we have;
$$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$
EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.
There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1>-x\
Rightarrow & -1<x\
Rightarrow & x>-1\
end{align*}
So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.
Then for $x<0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1<-x\
Rightarrow & -1>x\
Rightarrow & x<-1\
end{align*}
Putting the two cases together we have;
$$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$
EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.
There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1>-x\
Rightarrow & -1<x\
Rightarrow & x>-1\
end{align*}
So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.
Then for $x<0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1<-x\
Rightarrow & -1>x\
Rightarrow & x<-1\
end{align*}
Putting the two cases together we have;
$$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$
EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.
The problem is the sign of $x$. When $x<0$ you must flip the direction of the inequality when multiplying through.
There are two cases. Firstly for $x>0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1>-x\
Rightarrow & -1<x\
Rightarrow & x>-1\
end{align*}
So $x>0$ and $x>-1$, together these conditions imply that $x>0$.
Then for $x<0$;
begin{align*}
&
frac{1}{x}>-1\
Rightarrow & 1<-x\
Rightarrow & -1>x\
Rightarrow & x<-1\
end{align*}
Putting the two cases together we have;
$$xin(-infty,-1)cup(0,infty)=mathbb{R}setminus[-1,0]$$
EDIT: Note that your given solution includes $x=0$, but mine doesn't. As $xrightarrow 0$, the inequality holds, but it is undefined at zero itself which is why I have exluded this point.
edited Nov 15 at 1:50
answered Nov 15 at 1:40
CoffeeCrow
556215
556215
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
add a comment |
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
If $x=0$ the inequality is undefined. If $x=-1$, $frac{1}{x}+1=0not>0$, so $x$ cannot take on these values.
– CoffeeCrow
Nov 15 at 1:48
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
That's a tricky one.
Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.
Hope that works.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
That's a tricky one.
Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.
Hope that works.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
That's a tricky one.
Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.
Hope that works.
That's a tricky one.
Here is a possible solution. Clearly $xne -1$ follows from first inequality. Now from 2nd to 3rd inequality note that $frac{1}{x}>-1implies -x<1$ when $x$ is nonnegative i.e. $x$ can be zero or any positive number i.e. $xin [0,infty)$, again $frac{1}{x}>-1implies 1<-x$ when $x$ is any negative number such that $xne 0$ and $xnotin [-1,0]$ if so then it will contradict the last inequality. Hence, $xin (-infty,-1)$ . Thus in general we have: $xinmathbb{R}-[-1,0)$.
Hope that works.
answered Nov 15 at 1:46
Sujit Bhattacharyya
811216
811216
add a comment |
add a comment |
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4
When you multiply by $x$ on both sides, you have to be careful with sign of $x$.
– Anurag A
Nov 15 at 1:25
The problem is how you reached from $frac{1}{x}<-1$ to $x<-1$, you cannot simply flip the two sides of the inequality and assume the inequality stays the same. With this logic you can say if $frac{1}{2}<1$ then $2>1$, which is not correct.
– abk
Nov 15 at 1:39
2
@abk -- But $2>1$ is true! Your point is correct, though.
– mr_e_man
Nov 15 at 1:44
I didn't go from $ frac{1}{x} < -1 $ to $ x < -1 $, i did go from $frac{1}{x} > -1$.
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:44
And also, 2 > 1
– Vinicius L. Deloi
Nov 15 at 1:45